SkrillaVisuals

Пікірлер

@missinlinkx 6 күн бұрын

On everything I put da bag on bro #mostunderrated

@malik2-facemonroe151 10 күн бұрын

🔥

@RocHeart585 12 күн бұрын

🔥🔥🔥

@RocHeart585 12 күн бұрын

🔥

@tyhotbox5910 14 күн бұрын

🔥🔥

@BestsPointOfViewTV 15 күн бұрын

🔥🔥🔥🔥

@NVRSettleApparel 19 күн бұрын

Still bump this 🔥

@xayebands 19 күн бұрын

2025

@LaPrinceGraham-f3b 21 күн бұрын

The real song and beat is wave by bigga don

@LaPrinceGraham-f3b 21 күн бұрын

The real song and beat is wave by bigga don

@LaPrinceGraham-f3b 21 күн бұрын

The real song and beat is wave by bigga don

@LaPrinceGraham-f3b 21 күн бұрын

Not his beat 😂

@mbgodwebsite5272 24 күн бұрын

I read your paper and here is my take on it. To begin with, undoubtedly, polygyny was approved of God in the O.T. with restrictions. Hence, why He never condemned it. There was a reason for it, which was based on man's nature. It was designed that way until Christ came, and changed the design to marital monogamy, because of the change in the nature of the born-again Christian. For non-Christians, polygyny is still the game. For the Christian it is the sin of adultery. God is not a polygynyst. His expressions of Him being married to Israel and Judah in Ezekiel and Jeremiah are metaphors of aspects of human polygynist marriages that existed. Israel and Judah were males, not females. Surely, you don't think Him to be a homosexual, do you? You like to give reference to all those writers who declare how polygyny was practiced in early centuries, especially noting among Jewish men, but stating also among Christians. They may have, but that doesn't mean they were right, just as you are not right now. There are many that try to make Scripture support their ideas. Judaizers attempted it in Acts. Many have "crept in unaware." The Greko-Roman culture has nothing to do with monogamy for the Christian. Christ and the Apostles teachings have everything to do with it. Christ did come and fulfill the law and all who are in Christ are dead to O.T. law, yet alive to the law of Christ. In Matthew 5:19 Christ is not referencing obedience to the O.T. law, but rather commanding that the law not stop being taught and shown, because the law spoke of Him. He is speaking of the present time. Hence, why He refers to the "kingdom of heaven." The kingdom of heaven was not preached or conceived in the Torah. It was a N.T. phenomenon "The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it" (Luke 16:16). The Bill of Divorcement has been done away with. and the teachings of Christ nullified it and are now the authority on divorce/putting away. It is irrelevant to the Christian other than to show how a marriage is made before God and its violation. Matthew 22 is not stating "weddings" either. Nowhere in the N.T. is marriage pluralized. This is a very false declaration. The term "gamos" primarily refers to the institution of a marriage or the celebration of a wedding/marriage, singular. The Greek word "Gamous" does not pluralize wedding or marriage but rather pluralizes wedding feast. This is because marriages had more than one feast. Leah had a celebration for seven days where many feasts were ordered up. Also, Matthew 25 is not referring to the virgins as the "brides of Christ." Christ has one bride, and it is not the church. This is more ignorance of Christendom. The church cannot be the bride and "body of Christ" at the same time. It is a contradiction. A bride is the body of no other. She is an entity to herself. Paul spoke of a married church, not one to be married. The church of Christ, his body does not get its definition of adultery from the O.T. Again, Jesus defined what adultery is. He declared polygyny to now be adultery for those who are in Him, because we are not as we used to be. You stating that Christ can't change the law of marriage is flat out not true. If so, then He is a liar. In making reference of the polygynous marriages of the O.T. has no relevance to the Christian. It has been changed and no longer valid (Matthew 19:9, Mark 10:11&12, Luke 16:18). By His decree, even the woman can divorce now. See one of the changes? You are also wrong about your declaration of Revelation 19:7 referring to the "divorced house of Israel," because of the use of the Greek word γυνή/guné and not νύμφη/numphé This is speaking of the new Jerusalem, which is in a betrothed marriage to Christ. This is the virgin bride of Christ. Matthew 1:20&24 uses this term to describe Mary as Joseph's "wife." She was Joseph's virgin betrothed wife, not yet consummately married. Divorced women were never betrothed for marriage. After the birth of Christ, Mary was always referred to the 'child's mother" (Matthew 2:13,14,21), and not Joseph's wife. Also, a betrothed women couldn't commit adultery, because she was a virgin. She could be married to any man. If she was stoned, it wasn't for adultery, it was for breaching the covenant that was made for her under Hebrew law. This reveals more of your ineptness to betrothals and Biblical marriage.