at 28:39, we see voltage proportional to l^(+1) and at 32:47, we see resistance is proportional to to l^(-1)..... So, the doubt is, at 33:41, shouldn't resistive power loss be proportional to l^2/l^(-1) i.e l^3??? Resolution of the query will be highly appreciated 🙏🙏 Edit: I got the answer..... Actually in case of electricity, V is proportional to l^0..... And at 28:39, it is V proportionality to l for case of electrostatic forces and not electricity(circuits)

Very good session... Thank you 🙏🙏

Itna ganda kaun pdhata hai 🥲🥲🥲🥲🥲

Nice explanation

Handwriting is not understand to read

Tq u sir