On the flop you have two opportunities to hit your hand: the turn AND the river. On the turn you only have one more chance to hit your hand: the river. So, on the turn you effectively have half the chance of hitting your hand. As 2 is half of 4 multiplying by 2 gives the roughly half the odds you had on the flop.

Doesn't matter overall. Any card is just as likely to be in play or in the muck as any other card, so the calculations work out in the long-term.

Ich glaube, da muss man schon mehr Poker lernen, weil dieses Video ist eigentlich nur für Anfänger!

Ich finde Gretl nicht.

Auf garkeinen Fall.

You have 0 outs, so multiply your outs by 4 on the flop and by 2 on the river. You basically have the same outs as Phil Hellmuth with her.

> "And none of the fractions matter, it's the odds that count." Tell us you don't understand mathematics without telling us you don't understand mathematics.

nice lol

Just curious, why is this the case? why do you subtract one?

i think the probability of getting two card's that you need back to back is like .3% so it wouldnt be worth calculating imo

On an absolute scale, she is nothing special, but on a relative scale (to other girl poker players), she is.

Yeah you're actually missing that after the flop you have to account for 2 future cards, the turn and the river. After the flop, with 9 outs, the % to hit one is: (9/47)+(9/46) = almost 38% So yea, the rule of the 4+2 gets the result almost exactly. it's a close estimate

Thanks, and these things you helpfully explained, should have been part of the original explanation.

But I do like her, even though I know she can beat me up. lol

Alden Lewis Thank you for this explanation indeed

yes all these videos are horrible with explanation. Thye give NO reason thyeare using 2 and 4 multipliers.... she just said,.... do it..

pot formula is always Total Pot size/bet size. Assume there is 20 on the pot. Your opponent bets 5. Total pot size is 25. you need 5 to 1 to call or 1/5= 20 %. This just means that your need to have at least 5 clean outs on the flop to call. Of course, implied odds play also a big role when making this calculations which is not mentioned in the video.

This is incorrect, you'd need 1/6 = 16.66% chance to make the call not 20% as 5:1 is a total of 6 units.

@@danielmoctezuma3799 5:1 = 1/6 mate.

why is it 1/6

your putting in 5 to win an additional 25, so that's 20% which is 1/5

correct

5:1 is a total of 6 units, so 1/6 is your pot odds, which is 16.66%. You may think that when you need to call t2500 into a total pot t7500, that you would need a 33.3% chance of winning the pot to be able to make the call. This a common misconception, when you call the t2500 to win the t7500, you actually recieve t7500 + t2500 (your bet back). Thus you would only need a 25% chance of winning the pot to call this to effectively break even; This is because if you had a 25% chance of winning then you win 1/4 times.. So let's say the first 3 times you call you lose, thus you lose t7500 in total, however on the fourth time you win, when you win you get t10000, you know t2500 of the t10000 were your calling chips in an attempt to win the pot, therefore only t7500 of the chips are the profit. This shows that on average you will gain/lose no chips in the long run statistically.

There's a simple error here, but it isn't Kara's.