A Priori and A Posteriori Judgments

[@faroukramzan6649]

Brilliant sir, keep these up. A fellow philosophy enthusiast from San Antonio.

[@abdussalampakistan3694]

Great sir, thanks for such a great effort

[@oldman_eleven]

A priori knowledge such as 2+2= 4 is only knowable if taught in some way or discovered through interaction with our environment. I think this makes everything a posteriori. Even conceptually you would still require some knowlege derived from experience even if it is secondhand.

[@Yutson]

Great quality Dr. Bonevac! Maybe a soft light in front of you would add a bit more?

[@PhiloofAlexandria]

Good idea! I'll try it for my next one-as soon as the guys are finished fixing my deck. The sawing and hammering is keeping me from recording at the moment!

[@filipedavid3564]

What would you say to someone who denies that a priori judgements exist? Because even mathematical truths depend on experience if you think of it; the concept of 2 depends on experience. Someone who never saw or heard or felt anything at all wouldn't be capable of grasping the idea of 2, so to know 2+2=4 you need experience.

[@talia0734]

we want to subtitle for your videos mr

[@InfinityOf6]

A priori and a posteriori judgment walk into a bar - maybe they should have looked where they were going :P

[@couldstopwillstop]

Is A Priori, A Priori?

[@PhiloofAlexandria]

Fascinating and underexamined question! I see Quine’s debate with Carnap in this light. Quine is arguing, I think, that the question whether something is analytic or synthetic is itself synthetic, and the question whether something is a priori or a posteriori is itself a posteriori.

[@couldstopwillstop]

@@PhiloofAlexandria But can a definition be equal to itself? A=A? Is it consciousness that defines experience?

[@Google_Censored_Commenter]

@@couldstopwillstop A=A is what's known as the law of identity. It's not exactly a definition that's equal to itself, that would be a circular or self-referential definition, as it's called. Those are generally considered to be illogical.

[@lalsurya2275]

Sir, can u do a video on Habermas' "Modernity: an incomplete project".

[@PhiloofAlexandria]

Great idea. I may start a series on continental philosophy next spring.

[@myothersoul1953]

As an empiricists I have to ask, how meaningful it would be to know 1 + 1 = 2 without any experience? Unless "1" "+" "=" and "2" are attached to some ideas gleaned from experience they have no meaning. Is a soul a soul or could it be another soul? How can the truth of such statements be established with out some experience with souls?

[@abdullahzafar2942]

What about 0 or -2. Do they correspond to things in the physical world?

[@myothersoul1953]

@@abdullahzafar2942 Sure, a box with no things in it has zero things. And taking 2 things out of a box corresponds with -2 things.

[@abdullahzafar2942]

@@myothersoul1953 numbers that lie on the left side of zero on the number line correspond to objects in the physical world,how,if their value is less than zero?

[@abdullahzafar2942]

@@myothersoul1953 zero is not synonyms with emptiness, zero in mathematics is a whole number, it has a value of its own, it is not a nothingness.

[@myothersoul1953]

@@abdullahzafar2942 The numbers on the left side of zero correspond to the experience of loss (and probably other experiences). I didn't claim numbers had to correspond to objects. My claim was without any experience, numbers are meaningless.

[@TS-00]

Klaus Schwab World Economic Forum 2+2=5. Symbolic logic does not replace observed experimental evidence. Vaccinate 💉☣️⚕️ Bill Gates First. Return on investment.