Induction: Derivative Proof

[@skeletor9257]

Never drink and derive!

[@perseusgeorgiadis7821]

And once again, he saves the day!

[@twinklesunrise]

You're a wonderful teacher!! :)

[@JoeSmith69]

thanks dude. you kinda helped. im so so so so +...+ so +1 screwed for my math 114 test tomorrow.

[@patricknazar]

Very helpful, you're a really good teacher

[@malleharana8326]

You are a great teacher

[@frosturation2474]

wow thanks! i thought this would be very hard..

[@chandlerc5931]

what kind of class is this?

[@mathlegendno12]

Calc

[@venusjames4661]

u r great...

[@THEMATT222]

Noice 👍

[@nalingoel6971]

Wait!! I remember seeing you in some other comment section! What are the odds?!

[@THEMATT222]

@@nalingoel6971 Idk, lol. Probably 1 in a several million. Considering there are around 30 billion videos on KZbin and most of my comments don't gain enough likes to get exposed to more than a few people, even if I comment a lot, the chances are very very low.

[@nalingoel6971]

@@THEMATT222 You may not remember but we actually talked about Reddit lol.

[@THEMATT222]

@@nalingoel6971 Hmmmm, in which video did we talk in? Should we add each other on Reddit or something?

[@nalingoel6971]

@@THEMATT222 I don't remember which video; I am not on Reddit anymore

[@Carlosk12]

5:20 wait a minute aren't you supossed to plug h in an then you get 0/0

[@ineshmukherjee8338]

l'hopital's rule would have to be used so u take d/dx of the top and bottom to get 0/1 = 0

[@justinvance9221]

Since h isn’t actually 0, just approaching 0, you can evaluate 0/h before applying the limit. You do not have to apply L’Hopital.

[@nalingoel6971]

Imagine that h is just slightly above zero, then the answer will be zero, therefore you can imagine as to why the limit is 0.

[@nalingoel6971]

The whole purpose of the limit is that h is never equal to 0, just very close to 0

[@tonyanderson5123]

You cannot use the formula for d(x^n)/dx = nX^(n-1) to prove itself!!!

[@wujiajia5314]

How about nth derivative for (2x+1)^-1

[@AlchemistOfNirnroot]

I suppose you could use Leibnitz's theorem of nth product derivative if u=1 and v=f(x); but I haven't done the calculation.