The Bible translation you are using does not have the word "home" in v32 (middle). But the ESV translation of v32 (middle) is "each to his own home". Your explanation of scattering makes sense but if I use the ESV version, I don't read of anyone scattering "home" - all the way to Galilee. Any thoughts about reconciling the ESV version?
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Hi Bob, thanks for the good question. The Greek that I and the KJV translate "to his own," and that the ESV, the NET, the 1984 NIV, and the CSB translate "to his own home" is "eis ta idia." It could be translated very woodenly as "to one's own." There is no word for "home" in the Greek, but all those modern translations seem to agree that "to his own" is not clear enough English, so they add the word "home" as clarification. In another context that expression, "eis ta idia," might mean "to his own possessions." Since the word "home" is not there in the Greek, there is no need to think that they all went back to their actual homes in the Galilee. It pretty clearly just means they each went back to where ever they were each staying.