Darcy weisbach equation

[@anjumrehab1051]

This teacher is amazing, may God gives him more knowledge n good health........... 🙂🙂🙂🙂🙂🙂

[@judsonlayton9942]

instablaster...

[@anupama990]

You are the best fluid mechanics teacher I have ever seen!!!

[@muhammadhuzaifa6627]

your videos has made my life easy and i confidently say...now i know fluid dynamics..thank u...God bless u...

[@vignan222]

It happy to hear a class from a teacher who want to teach the perfect concept with good effort..

[@ArvindKumar-hg1de]

Thank u sir . Aap ki samjhane ki tarika mst hai. 👍👍👍👍👍👍👍

[@angshumankalita1670]

Love your videos sir. You make me understand that i can't understand in class. Thank you once again

[@vishwapadshetty]

Nice explanation sir Much Better than our sir I have understood it sir

[@vivek__-df8hg]

He explained it so easily 👏

[@priyanshpajankar2617]

Sir you explain everything so patiently. Thankyou so much!

[@shadabhussain3363]

Sir,Your channel deserved Millions Subscribers..

[@gourabchakraborty6451]

Bohot help hua mujhe...sir up ki video bohot aachha ha matlb samajh aata ha...kal mera fluid ka exm he...thank you sir for this helpful video..

[@masudhossain6120]

this man saved me back 2019

[@yonis7079]

I don't even speak the language but I understood this better here than in class....

[@mr.deveshverma9422]

sir aapke vidios dekh kar fm1 me sabse jiyada number mujhe aye hai exam me. thankiyou sir app ase hi vidios banate rahiye

[@AslamAnsari-pu9kq]

Sir thanks for the video. However please note that fluid is moving due to the energy (head, pressure, velocity) created by pumping system not due to pressure drop (p1-p2) which is due to losses like frictional. This pressure drop is not at all desirable in any pipeline.

[@neonroy1431]

Pump Energy ,pressure energy ,kinetic energy aur potential energy me distribute ho jayega h

[@masudhossain6120]

awsm sir . gr8 work . m from Don Bosco Univrsty .guwahati,Assam. sir hindi mei bohot asche se samja ajj orr vi vid baniye engg 4th sem ke sylbus pr.respct&love.hope ki..... 1 year oe 2 year k badd me ye chnnl youtb ka search engine ka 1st list me hoga.

[@chandanmanjhi5272]

What will be the force on pipe hangers due to self weight of pipe and fluid pressure..can you give some examples on that

[@shrutishelar6c903]

Sir, the way you teach is very fantastic. Please upload navier stokes derivation.

[@mohammedafnan.n8762]

The way you teach it's really 👌sir I just loved it ❤

[@shivgarg2.0]

Thanks 🙏🏻 sir your teaching experience is very good 😊😊

[@NainaRokade-fn2fo]

Many adds,, they create too much disturbance 😢😢😢, by the way amazing teaching skills!!!

[@godsparticle7657]

There is friction coefficiant, darcy friction factor, fanning friction factor !!! I dont know which one to use....please help if you see this comment. I did not get the answer even after watching full video.

[@bhavanababhare2235]

Sir your explaning talent is amazing ,...I am getting topics quickly in my mind ..Thank you sir

[@younusmushtaq023]

Sir ur the best teacher in the would ..

[@ubaidmundewadi6368]

P2 ka direction opposite kyu hai? Pls explain

[@bekind7211]

If fluid is viscous then how can we use continuity equation here

[@amitthing2978]

Sir i have found flv2/2gd and 2fLv2/gd. Which one is correct?? Help

[@kangabamsingh9299]

Very easy to understand. Nice presentation

[@theruokfan3521]

Sir can give more important questions abou fmhm

[@edutechguruengineeringlear4280]

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[@harshalpednekar4709]

You are the best teacher sir we love you

[@mahantheshmata6598]

Sir can you clarify me that in Darcy-Weisbach equation that {f'/density} = {f/2} (how is this derived) That means ratio of frictional resistance per unit wetted area per unit velocity to density will be equal to half of co-efficient of friction.

[@rehanahmad9340]

😮

[@aanshrestha8261]

so for headloss calc in pipe, when should i use Hazen poiseuille eq and when to use the Darcy weisbach eq???

[@Adhiyan_1]

Best teacher in the world ...Tys Sir ....

[@edutechguruengineeringlear4280]

kzbin.info/www/bejne/eWKre2eNrbejhbM

[@mungarilal1085]

love ur explanation . iwould reccomend to use a bigger class room seems conjusted but content is great and helpful

[@prakashdevsingh1500]

Thanks alot your videoes are very helpful.. now my all concepts are clear

[@shivkashyap2177]

Sir aap ko kisi motivation ki jarurt nhi h aap amazing ho or rhoge

[@myreviewtube4251]

Super sir muje aaj pata chala yeh equation bas kal FM paper aram se jaaye..

[@avnishpathak-l4]

Ur classes are damn good Explanation way is nice keep it up sr plz complete fm first

[@pranjal_tanti]

Whay P2 pressure is comes??, please explain this,, 🥺

[@assetdex]

I like your way of teaching. Keep going on.

[@ashishramteke5532]

P2 ka direction opposite kaise liya? Can you explain that?

[@ajiteshshah5274]

sir, I had one question. can u plz solve it for me? " One meter diameter pipe is to carry a water discharge of 1 cumec at a minimum loss of energy. What will be the permissible height of surface roughness?" It is the full question, but sth is either hidden or not given, which may be needed to be assumed. It had been asked in our exam. What values will be assumed to solve this question? Thank you! I like your videos.

[@anandkumarshukla3091]

Explanation bahut hi Accha tha sir thanks sir

[@prakashpoudel6817]

Really amazing video!!! Thank u Sir!!! 🇳🇵🇳🇵🇳🇵

[@deabojyotimondal6190]

excellent lecture.......koi confusion nehi

[@AtulKumar-dm1on]

U made it easy to understand

[@Engineeringeducation87]

Sir aap bornuli eqn pe video nahi bnaye hai kya please reply sir

[@bijoybasumatary4651]

Best explanation ever!!!

[@what1174]

Simply , sir you the best ever

[@jobseeking827]

Thank you sir.. Really i m appreciating from your videos Good to see your video

[@prasadraut8839]

Sir why P2 has reverse direction ? Please explain

[@shubhamtajve4061]

Sir how Velocity will be same at 1 and 2 if dia is same?

[@supremospirit7856]

Sir... What about pressure... As u told in the previous class during verturimetet derivation, that If diameter increase = press increase+ velocity decrease. And vice versa. Then what about pressure here because, here all the measurements are equal Such as area,velocity, and main thing is that diameter also equal. So as your concept of previous class, pressure should also equal

[@praskandsawant4640]

can i use darcy weisbach eq for both flow for ex. turbulent and laminar.

[@oneinmillion9815]

You should give link to previous video in which you told about datum line..In description

[@gamingwithwizboy5394]

Thanks sir bohot a66e se samajh paya ...😇😇

[@AMITKUMAR-yu5he]

Sir , Flow regime ka bi ek video bana dijiye Bhot meherbani hogi apki... Vo topic ni smjh aa rha

[@2008ALVIM]

Congratulations for quality. There are many details

[@ak93441]

make videos on SFD and BMD

[@coldmayank]

May add plz

[@nathanielamartey1119]

Please how did you get the lamda for the final head loss?

[@py3167]

I loved your teaching sir, thanks.

[@asrarahmed1114]

Sir, Mistake at 10:10 Friction resistance equation is based on the assumptions. Why we need to multiply with square of velocity, instead of velocity..???

[@Cryptic_Chai]

because it is also an assumption that frictional resistance is proportional to nth power of velocity. some books take n=1.5 and some take n=2 so v square (In laminar frictional resistance is proportional to velocity only)

[@shyamsundaryadav8752]

Sir plz make videos of Stanton and Moody diagram

[@Fittube-rg9tp]

Sir aap achhe padhate h..👌

[@crazyforhell3621]

thanks sir you r a good teacher

[@RahulMeena-de6bh]

Sir what is the unit of frictional resistance Fprime not satisfying this equatin in form of units.

[@RahulMeena-de6bh]

Scientist de gya vo thik hai but kaise

[@jenilshah6689]

Sir Pls share your skin care routine.

[@shrutirathour8660]

Really well explained sir

[@ENGINEERKARTiK]

Sir ...Bow Down To You 🙏

[@sat_nd]

How would you get f'/rho = f/2 ?

[@Gg77-i7d]

Same question, if you got it then tell me

[@nutanbhagat6616]

Perfect teacher👍👍👍

[@abhishekmaurya9503]

Plz explain....how( f'/density=f/2 ).

[@pavikafluidsaystawi4289]

In some books you will get friction factor as f which is also called as lamda and they will also say f is coefficient of friction so, don't get confused. Actually, in head loss due to friction equation (hf) = 4fLV^2/(2gD) where f = coeffeicient of friction and if we take (4*f) this term in head loss equation (hf) we call it as a friction factor. Which is also called as lamda (Friction factor). Thats why in Moodys diagram you will get on L.H.S (Lamda = 64/Re), Since Lamda = 4f then (4f = 64/Re) after that ( f = (64/Re*4)) and finally you get coeffeicient of friction (f = 16/Re). Without correct, coefficient of friction value you will not be able to find correct head loss due friction.

[@prasanjitbala1205]

Sir a is question ka explaination nahi hai..

[@ajayrajbhar8717]

Sir God bless you 🙏🙏🙏🙏 You are Great teacher

[@rupalibidgar783]

plz explain f'/density =f/2

[@pavikafluidsaystawi4289]

In some books you will get friction factor as f which is also called as lamda and they will also say f is coefficient of friction so, don't get confused. Actually, in head loss due to friction equation (hf) = 4fLV^2/(2gD) where f = coeffeicient of friction and if we take (4*f) this term in head loss equation (hf) we call it as a friction factor. Which is also called as lamda (Friction factor). Thats why in Moodys diagram you will get on L.H.S (Lamda = 64/Re), Since Lamda = 4f then (4f = 64/Re) after that ( f = (64/Re*4)) and finally you get coeffeicient of friction (f = 16/Re). Without correct, coefficient of friction value you will not be able to find correct head loss due friction.

[@mohammadmohsin9101]

where do we use (flv^2/2gd) and (4flv^2/2gd)

[@rohitgupta-er3rx]

friction factor (f) = 4 * coefficient of friction. whenever friction factor is given, use (flv^2/2gd)

[@k.sjadhav8360]

Sir refrence book rk jain ki process follow kiyi to nahi jamtaa kyaa?

[@kanhaiyalal-sy5st]

Head loss in hdpe pipe ?

[@souvikdutta3308]

very nice explained

[@ShubhamYadav-xy5dg]

V1^2 v2^2 cancel hogaya to uske niche ka zg kaha gaya ??

[@vaibhavshevne]

Very well explained 👏🏻👏🏻😇

[@shankar.r.chavan1356]

impressive sir nice explanation

[@kishanbarnwal5571]

Love your teaching sir🙂

[@edutechguruengineeringlear4280]

kzbin.info/www/bejne/eWKre2eNrbejhbM

[@abdulgafoor7314]

Can you make a video on velocity of sound waves

[@ashishpandey6676]

Thank you sir❤❤

[@poonamgautam976]

Sir how F is equal to f'/2

[@sergion_brayen]

f' is coefficient of friction(constant) which is depends upon nature of surface! It is practically proved that F=f'/2

[@nileshshinde5533]

Please make video on syphon

[@pragyanbeuria8262]

14.54sec?? How do we know??

[@JhaManiZAMANI]

Sir meko plzz smjhaiye ki coefficient of friction aap isme kaise laye. Or f aata kha se h. Plzz Sir. Mujhe aapke ans ke liye kab tk wait krna pad ga.

[@tribhuwann4546]

We want video on ...rotameter

[@anonymous9204]

V good explanation...thnk u v much

[@aazimjahanzeab2887]

f/density =f/2? Plz explain

[@pavikafluidsaystawi4289]

In some books you will get friction factor as f which is also called as lamda and they will also say f is coefficient of friction so, don't get confused. Actually, in head loss due to friction equation (hf) = 4fLV^2/(2gD) where f = coeffeicient of friction and if we take (4*f) this term in head loss equation (hf) we call it as a friction factor. Which is also called as lamda (Friction factor). Thats why in Moodys diagram you will get on L.H.S (Lamda = 64/Re), Since Lamda = 4f then (4f = 64/Re) after that ( f = (64/Re*4)) and finally you get coeffeicient of friction (f = 16/Re). Without correct, coefficient of friction value you will not be able to find correct head loss due friction.

[@gorakhkulkarni7436]

Sir please explain dupit's equation for head loss

[@VinodKumarSwarnkar-i7p]

Thankyou sir you are very sweet 😊😊

[@ronny4533]

sir..in some books friction factor is taken as flv(square)/2gd ...so which one is correct

[@pavikafluidsaystawi4289]

In some books you will get friction factor as f which is also called as lamda and they will also say f is coefficient of friction so, don't get confused. Actually, in head loss due to friction equation (hf) = 4fLV^2/(2gD) where f = coeffeicient of friction and if we take (4*f) this term in head loss equation (hf) we call it as a friction factor. Which is also called as lamda (Friction factor). Thats why in Moodys diagram you will get on L.H.S (Lamda = 64/Re), Since Lamda = 4f then (4f = 64/Re) after that ( f = (64/Re*4)) and finally you get coeffeicient of friction (f = 16/Re). Without correct, coefficient of friction value you will not be able to find correct head loss due friction.

[@ENGINEERKARTiK]

Sir Kindly Share me Your SOM Playlist for Civil Mechanics Of Solids ..

[@rahulavhad3792]

sir bahot bahot badhiya ❤️❤️❤️

[@sureshdidmishe6729]

Pl explain how f. By density becomes f by 2

[@MANIRAJ-mu5he]

Same problem sir ,how

[@dr.neerajbhardwaj9449]

very useful video. thank u sir

[@janvidaksh1086]

Material science K bhi lectures daito ho sir ?

[@janecordero3819]

sir, P2 ka direction nahi samjha, why is it not in the same dirn as P1

[@edutechguruengineeringlear4280]

kzbin.info/www/bejne/eWKre2eNrbejhbM