Regarding the assertion that the Bible doesn't say the enacting parties are in the Destruction of Damascus episode in Isaiah 17, what would be the appropriate way to understand Isaiah 17:9 and Isaiah 17:14? In v.9, the "his strong cities will be as a forsaken bough" that "they left" ..."because of the children of Israel". Who is "his" and "they" referring to? Because this verse is pretty clear that the "children of Israel" play some part in what is described in (at least) this (section of the) Isaiah 17. Also, in verse 14, where it describes the rapidity of destruction (of Damascus? in general? ...which I think lends credence to implications that unconventional, likely nuclear, weapons may play a part in this prophecy's fulfillment to cause such rapid and permanent destruction...think Chernobyl), the speaker uses the pronoun "us" to state that the destruction is the lot of those who plunder "us" (the speaker and the party with which the speaker identifies). What about "us"? Who are the plundered ones being described here (if not referring to Israel)? I would grant one caveat that the chapter-and-verse divisions of the Bible are not inspired (per assertion by Dr. Chuck Missler), even if VERY helpful. If such, the sections of (what we see as) Isaiah 17 could be referring to different topics and not the same topic? It is possible, but the chapter division and the subject heading for Isaiah 17 specify this is ALL ABOUT the judgment on Damascus. Do other commentators assert that these parts of Isaiah 17 are different topics? If not, then how can the assertion be made that the Bible doesn't speak of the parties involved?