[Phonology] Consonant Place Features and Laryngeal Features

[@simge1280]

11:35 i am in the library rn and i had to laugh with you at that part 😅

[@smartreaderenglishtuitionc2737]

Thank you and I prefer this video as my tutorial class. Preparing for my exam😅👍🇲🇾subscribed.

[@Kattttttz]

Trev is saving my gpa

[@englishwithik1324]

Thank you very much, could you please tell me more examples about a cv theory?

[@mohdzulkanienzulkanien]

I love this tutorial. Could you tell me which model it is based on?

[@andreachaz3710]

omg Now i understand all, i just noticed that you are the love of my life xD

[@曾黎俊]

Is it that you use the term “coronal” to denote an area and use the term tip/blade as one of the referential points on the active articulator, and the other point is anterior (means front and up), then two points determine the particular type of consonant groups with particular consonant place features? Thanks and expect for your response.

[@alaindubois1505]

Thanks, I hadn't heard the extended version of this area. I was attempting to find out how laryngeal sounds are used in ablaut - normally grammatical vowel changes such as in strong verbs. I learnt there are two 'ch' sounds, which I did not differentiate - the 'tʃ' and the 'c'. I think Chinese pinyin makes the c a 'ts' sound. It's very annoying when different languages use the same symbol for different sounds. Then there's the two 'k' sounds that caused the Romans to use a 'c' and a 'q' and leave out the 'k' that has basically only been used for one sound. The use of 'c' instead of 'k' has made a whole avalanche of problems between French, Italian, English and Latin transliteration, and also that Russian and Greek uses the 'c' for an 's'!

[@volpelastname6951]

No. You're looking at people historically using different writing systems from one another (Latin uses C where Greek uses something that *resembles* K for the sound /k/; Latin uses S and Greek uses something that *resembles* C for the sound /s/. These are different letters entirely, not people using the same letters for different sounds). 1. Mandarin distinguishes between the phonemes /ts/ (z) and /tsʰ/ (c). Why would a language use multiple letters to describe a single phoneme it frequently uses, especially when using multiple letters would make words more convoluted (you would have the pairs ci and zi written as something like ts'i and tsi respectively, which is infinitely worse for quick transcriptions and reading at a glance). Simply put, different languages are different languages with different phonological needs so it would be incredibly stupid and counterproductive if every language used the Latin alphabet with the same representations. If anything, specifically in Mandarin it's ingenious to use C, K and Q for different sounds as they all sound exactly the same. 2a. There were never two /k/ sounds in Latin. There was the letter C which had the sound /k/ like the first letter in English "king." The letter Q denoted the sound /kʷ/ (k but with your lips rounded, not like kw in the beginning of the word question {kwɛs.t͡ʃən} or the Q in Iraq that uneducated people online love to claim it was with no proof). The Romans didn't really use the letter K because they didn't have it; it was a greek letter that had the exact same sound as the Romans' own letter C. 2b. You're aware that in English alone the letter C can make the noise /s/ or /k/, and T can be pronounced as /t/, /ʃ/, /ɾ/ (in American English this is the standard pronunciation of the letter T, but alas you don't bat an eye at it not being written with an r), /t͡s/, /t͡ʃ/, or /ʔ/.

[@hussamhussein9984]

what makes us applied a certain of feature on some certain sets of sounds rather than others ,why strident feature goes to classify the fricative sound rather than stops for example .

[@Trevtutor]

Usually motivated by acoustic or phonetic properties. Stridents have noticeably more turbulence than other fricatives and stops, for example.

[@hussamhussein9984]

Thanks for response and we are looking for more videos , especially about (optimality theory , and generative phonology ) Many thanks from IRAQ .

[@曾黎俊]

hussam hussein maybe the point is the airstream going through the front teeth and you know teeth are something hard, therefore, creat strident sounds.

[@曾黎俊]

hussam hussein maybe the point is the airstream going through the front teeth and you know teeth are something hard, therefore, creat strident sounds.

[@sede_eagle7644]

Hello, could you takl a little bit about laryngeal effect in korean? particlarly for korean stops

[@SanaUllah-ox6xf]

Thank you.

[@bonbonpony]

I still don't get it what makes them "unary" :q If they either are there or not, we could still use + or - to distinguish them, couldn't we? (the + meaning that it is there, and - that it isn't)

[@Trevtutor]

If we allow -COR, then we can have rules that target all -COR sounds. But these types of rules have never been observed in speech, so it doesn't make sense to allow them. That's the reasoning for SPE Phonology.

[@sarahsultan4803]

unary features are not (+) or (-), a sound either has it or not, but then why its written as (+),(-) in feature chart?. this is worth of 2 marks in my assignment and i am confused !!

[@davidphilipsmusic]

... that tongue drawing though.... hahahaha

[@abdullahalshahrani1912]

very helpful. thank you so much from Saudi Arabia!

[@ربمونالاردني]

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