Use Mean Value Theorem To Prove Inequalities

We cover how to use the Mean Value Theorem to prove an inequality. We solve the problem that states that cosx is greater than x-1 when x is always greater than or equal to 0.
This type of problem is common to calculus courses and does indeed test your knowledge of the MVP.
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[@ellenc9699]

Thanks man, this really cleared out some grey areas💕💕 please keep making more videos.

[@brendanstuart2088]

Great video! Was struggling hard with this concept but you explained it really clearly. Thanks a lot!

[@8NickzB]

Brilliant, made this seem easy

[@fillipzamfirov1370]

Really great video with clear explanations! Thank you very much!!

[@marcosivansanabria7137]

Thanks a lot, your explanation really clear my doubts of how to apply mvt in this kind of exercises

[@MaiaraBela]

Nice explanation, thanks!

[@ernstpaulswens]

Thanks saved me a lot of time! 👌🙌

[@adgilbert9453]

Wow, I love this!

[@barancel11]

best video ever seen bout this topic thanks a lot

[@IloveNateReuss]

Amazing video, thankyou!

[@hul0beral]

Thank you!

[@horrorandgames]

Thanks a lot.

[@eroincigloblin9501]

Yes,videos from 2006 still helps.

[@gurleensingh4152]

Sir please tell how we define the function

[@RNFNRidol]

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[@ChallHatt]

The resident evil theme in the bg Great 👍

[@LuisGarcia-od3ws]

Can you briefly explain again why you chose negative 1 to be less than ((cos(x)) - (cos(0))) / x ?

[@ZacheriasMandzukovic]

We know the lowest possible value of -sin(c) = -1 so the left side will always be bigger or equal to -1

[@soumyadeeproy6611]

Brilliant

[@blackstar272000]

O.k Okay.

[@ravijamaheshwari8834]

Voice tho

[@amnakayani8902]

Apply Mean Value Theorem to establish the inequality e^x≥1+ x, x∈R. kindly explain this question plz

[@paokaraforlife]

take f(x)=e^x and apply MVT in the interval(0,x) f'(x)=e^x and e^x is always bigger than or equal to 1 for x>0 so you have (e^x-1)/x >1 or e^x>x+1

[@christiansnaturestudio6599]

I'm still confused tho

[@Goose____]

why tf did i take real analysis