Why Did Jesus Drink Three Cups at the Last Supper?

[@wingchun1963]

Jesus in the garden Gethsemane said take this cup away from me, yet not as I will. On the Cross, the Romans gave him myrrh to drink to deaden his pain but he refused it. As he was about to die he said," I thirst" and , with a hyssop branch- used in Exodus to mark the blood of the lamb on the lintels, gave him wine vinegar to drink. My after he drank it he said IT is finished . The passover meal was finished. He drank from the fourth cup on the cross. Our redemption doesn't begin until he resurrects. Rom 4:25 Jesus could have drunken the fourth cup when he saw the 11 on Easter sunday, but he didn't and no one asked him about it. That's how the RCC explains it.

[@revolutionofordinaries]

I don't believe there was a fourth cup.

[@wingchun1963]

@@revolutionofordinaries it's part of the Jewish passover. You're not required to believe in it, but not acknowledging a fact is up to you.

[@in2jc]

Alleluia! What a Savior! Amen!

[@revolutionofordinaries]

Amen and God bless you!

[@hebrewgreek7420]

“The Cup of Blessing” is a rabbinic, Hebrew term that refers to the cup of wine after a meal over which a set of special blessings are recited/sung. “The Cup of Blessing” comes after any communal meal that includes bread. Jewish meals began/begin with a blessing over bread and end with the “Cup of Blessing” after eating the meal (in fulfillment of Deut 8:10). In Hebrew the term “Cup of Blessing” is כּוֹס שֶׁל בְּרָכָה Kos Shel Bracha. The blessings recited over this cup are commonly referred to as Birkat HaMazon. Today, there are 4 blessings sung here; in Jesus’ day and even before then, there were 3. The fact that this happened after all meals that included bread (which was most meals) indicates and explains why Jesus says, “Whenever you do this.” The Cup of Blessing was (and still is) one of the cups at the Passover Seder, but this particular cup is also used for meals all throughout the year. So, most of the time they would not have been doing this with unleavened bread; only during the week of Passover would they have used unleavened bread.

[@revolutionofordinaries]

Very informative! Super helpful. I appreciate the information. It is hard to know, sometimes how much we get from the later teachings were a part of how it was in Jesus' day but Paul making that reference makes me feel better about it...and, to your point, it sounds like that goes back quite a way.

[@hebrewgreek7420]

Wineskins, right, it’s always important to be careful about interpreting later practice anachronistically into the NT, but with this one we have Paul’s references to “the Cup of Blessing which we bless,” the cup after supper, Luke’s reference to two of the cups at the Passover Seder, and several references to the blessings themselves in antiquity (more below). This may also shed light on why, when Jesus feeds the 5,000, they sit in groups of 50 and 100, because there are certain introductions to the after-meal blessings that change wording based on how many people have eaten together. There are a couple other potential references in the NT to this practice, as well. David Instone-Brewer has done careful work on dating certain rabbinic traditions in his TRENT volumes (Traditions of the Rabbis from the Era of the New Testament). Vol. 1 on “Prayer and Agriculture” traces the origin and development of the Grace After Meals tradition and shows how the subject matter, if not the wording, of 3 of its 4 blessings can be dated back to Jesus’ day and even before. The main passages in consideration are Jubilees 22:6-9; Sirach 36:12-14, 17-19; Didache 10; and b.Brachot 48b.

[@hebrewgreek7420]

Wineskins, the blessings in Chapter 10 of the Didache are almost certainly dependent on the Jewish practice of the Grace After Meals. This is amazing since the Didache was only relatively recently rediscovered in 1873, dates back to around 100 CE, and purportedly transmits the teachings of the apostles to Gentile believers. A monumental and seminal work on the Didache, with text, translation, detailed commentary, and application for modern believers, was recently produced (in 2017) by Tobi Janicki and published by Vine of David. Janicki’s work, entitled _The Way of Life_, is highly recommended reading for anyone interested in discovering how at least some of the earliest Gentile believers lived out their faith. Janicki adds a lot to the discussion in terms of these and other blessings preserved in the Didache. Below is a link to a review of this work if you’re interested. www.academia.edu/34257820/The_Way_of_Life_Book_Review

[@dwighthaas1771]

There are two accounts that Jesus states in relation to the 4th cup, Matt.26:29 & Luke 22:18. In Matt. Jesus speaks of "I will not drink ofbtjis fruit of the vine from now on until I drink it new with you in My Father's kingdom", while in Luke "I will not drink of the fruit of the vine until the Kingdom of God comes". But Jesus did partake of wine one more time...at his death, maybe. Jesus was offered wine twice. The first time mixed with gall, to relieve pain, which he regused, the second time it is called sour wine, which was either vinegar, which was wine in its final stage or sour wine, wine turning into vinegar or cheap wine that the soldiers were probably drinking. The significance is that if wine, it fulfills the last cup, which meant to the Jews "I will take", which meant acceptance, which is linked to Hallel (song of praise), which united all kingdoms at His death and in His blood. Of course if just vinegar, Jesus could have been referring to a future time for the 4th cup beyond the grave in the heavenly kingdom.

[@ketubah857]

Very good. I understand the scripture gives evidence that Yeshua did not take anything while on the cross. And i believe Yeshua said He will drink the fourth cup when we are all together at the wedding.

[@GCM4u]

THE VINEGAR THE LORD GOT WAS ALSO CONSIDERED THE 4TH CUP ....LET THIS CUP BE PASSED!!!!!! 3X!!!!! OOOH LORD!!!

[@revolutionofordinaries]

that's an interesting thought...appreciate you leaving a comment.

[@emrakultheaeonstorn7430]

The Stanley Cup lore that is… 2054 years ago Jesus drank from a cup at the last supper. On his way out he tossed the cup in the dishes and went about to save us. That cup was washed and looked after by disciples and followers until it ended up in the hands of the Templars where it was bought hidden stolen and finally made its way to Canada on a viking ship where it was passed down from generations until Lord Stanley of Preston discovered it in Montreal had it engraved and presented it to Canada upon the winner of the 1893 Dominion Hockey Challenge Cup.

[@revolutionofordinaries]

Too funny!

[@chrisjami4007]

“It is Psalm 118 that contains the words, ‘The stone which the builders rejected has become the chief cornerstone. i believe this was the song... 🙏🏻

[@revolutionofordinaries]

Such a powerful psalm!

[@chrisjami4007]

@@revolutionofordinaries Amen.

[@evamariachristus721]

One of their customs is to drink wine at weddings. At the wedding where JC changed water to wine the drinkers felt that the best wine was kept until the end. So typical of alcoholics that they would think that the best was kept until the end. They were probably so drunk already that they could not tell the difference in the taste of the wine.

[@greenhaven-podcast]

What kind of bread did the Lord use at the Last Supper? Our earliest witness, St. Paul, witnesses that the Lord “took bread”, that is, leavened bread, αρτος(I Corinthians 11.23, 26, 27). As for the three Synoptic Evangelists (Matthew 26:26-29; Mark 14:22-25 and Luke 22:19-20), Archbishop Averky (Taushev) of Jordanville writes: “All three describe this event in approximately the same way. The Lord ‘took’ the bread, blessed it, broke it and distributed it among the disciples, saying: ‘Take, eat; this is My Body.’ The word bread’ here is ‘artos [αρτος]’ in Greek, which means ‘raised bread’, bread that has been leavened on yeast, as opposed to ‘azymon [αζυμων]’, as the unleavened bread used by the Jews at Pascha was called. It must be assumed that such bread had been specially prepared on the Lord’s instructions, in order to establish the new Mystery. The significance of this bread lies in that it is as it were alive, symbolizing life, as opposed to unleavened bread, which is dead.” Peter, Patriarch of Antioch, explained the significance of the use of leavened bread in his correspondence with the Venetian Archbishop Dominic of Grado in 1052. Unleavened bread (αζυμα), he said, was prescribed for the Jews in remembrance of their hasty flight from Egypt, “so that, remembering the wonders that God had done among them, they would abide by His commandments and never forget His deeds. But the perfectly leavened loaf (αρτος) - which through the ritual is made into the undefiled Body of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ - is given in remembrance of His dispensation in the flesh. ‘For whenever you eat this loaf (αρτος) and drink this cup,’ he says, ‘you proclaim the death of the Lord until He comes’ (I Corinthians 11.26). Now notice, most holy brother-in-spirit, that in all these places a loaf (αρτος), and not matzo [unleavened bread, αζυμα], is proclaimed to be the Body of the Lord, because it is complete and full (αρτιον). But matzo is dead and lifeless and in all ways incomplete. But when the leaven is introduced into the wheaten dough, it becomes, as it were, living and substantial.” www.orthodoxchristianbooks.com/articles/680/-bread-eucharist/

[@greenhaven-podcast]

Since we're getting specific. 😁😇🍞

[@revolutionofordinaries]

You might find this interesting from my friend Bobby Valentine - stonedcampbelldisciple.com/2011/05/12/the-bread-on-the-table-an-ancient-controversy-that-changed-the-supper/

[@greenhaven-podcast]

@@revolutionofordinaries WOW! That was WONDERFUL!!! The quotes from the Church Fathers and all. Very good! I've bookmarked that one! Glory to God! 🙏 So why aren't you all Orthodox? 😆❤️🤷‍♂️ You might enjoy this short answer about the bread. The question was actually asked by a c of C person. www.oca.org/questions/divineliturgy/leavened-bread-vs.-unleavened

[@datepalm1969]

Contrary to widespread misinterpretation of Exodus 12:6, the day of Passover was not on Nisan 14, but was on Nisan 15! Although at face value, Exodus 12:6 appears to state that the Passover was on Nisan 14, several other passages of scripture in the Old Testament of the Bible (listed below) are 'explicit' that the day of Passover was on Nisan 15 which 'began' at 'sunset' that time-marked the 'end' of Nisan 14 and the 'beginning' of Nisan 15. Numbers 33:3 confirms that the day of Passover was on the fifteenth (15th) day of the first month of Nisan (i.e. Nisan 15), because the children of Israel departed from Egypt in the 'morning' after celebrating the Passover during the 'night-time' hours of Nisan 15. Other passages of scripture in the Bible which infer that the day of Passover was on the fifteenth (15th) day of the first month of Nisan are those pertaining to the Feast of Unleavened Bread because the first (1st) day of the seven-day Feast of Unleavened Bread was on the day of Passover (i.e. the seven-day Feast of Unleavened Bread began at sunset on the day of Passover). They include: - 🔹Exodus 12:15 🔹Exodus 12:17 🔹Exodus 12:18 🔹Exodus 13:7 🔹Exodus 23:15 🔹Exodus 34:18 🔹Leviticus 23:6 🔹Numbers 28:17 🔹Deuteronomy 16:1-10 It should be noted that the 'morning' of the day of the Passover on which the children of Israel departed from Egypt, was still Nisan 15 because (unlike the Gregorian calendar), according to the ancient Hebrew calendar the day 'began' at sunset of one day, and 'ended' at sunset on the next day. The 'beginning' and the 'end' of the 24-hour day on the ancient Hebrew calendar are not in perfect synchrony with the 'beginning' and the 'end' of the 24-hour day on the proleptic and current Gregorian calendar, because the 24-hour day on the ancient Hebrew calendar 'began' at 'sunset' of one day, and 'ended' at 'sunset' of the next day, whereas, the 24-hour day on the Gregorian calendar 'begins' at 'midnight' of one day, and 'ends' at 'midnight' of the next day. I repeat for emphasis, according to the ancient Hebrew calendar the day 'began' at 'sunset' of one day, and 'ended' at 'sunset' on the next day. Therefore, the 'morning' (which began at sunrise) on which the children of Israel exited their houses was still Nisan 15 because Nisan 15 'began' at 'sunset' that preceded the 'morning' by approximately (but not exactly) twelve (12) hours on which the day of Passover began. Q&A: Why does Exodus 12:6 'appear' to state that the day of Passover was Nisan 14? Because the 'preparation' for the Passover was on Nisan 14, during which all leaven and leavened products such as leavened bread, was removed from the house, and the Passover lamb (or goat, see Exodus 12:5), was humanely slaughtered and dressed during the last hour of the day (i.e. the last hour of Nisan 14). The word 'evening' in Exodus 12:6 (KJV) is a mistranslation of the word 'twilight' which is the last hour of the day immediately prior to sunset which time-marked the 'end' of one day, and the 'beginning' of the next day. Exodus 12:15 informs that the Israelites were required to remove all leaven (yeast) from their houses on the 'first' (1st) day, which in context refers to Nisan 14 (i.e. the day of 'preparation' for the ensuing day of Passover that 'began' at sunset which time-marked the 'end' of Nisan 14 and the 'beginning' of Nisan 15. Notice that Exodus 12:15 also states that any Israelite that eats leavened bread during the seven days of the Feast of Unleavened Bread will be 'cut off' (i.e. be killed or die some other way). Similarly, exiting the house prior to the morning (the 'beginning' of which was time-marked by the sunrise), was also forbidden and punishable by death (Exodus 12:22). This also explains why Judas Iscariot was 'cut off' (i.e. die) shortly after Christ and His disciples celebrated the Passover on Nisan 15-when Judas Iscariot 'exited' the house when it was 'night' (see John 13:30), he effectively signed his own death warrant. So, Nisan 14 was a very busy day for the Israelites because the 'preparation' for the Passover required the entire house to be meticulously cleaned and inspected in order to ensure that all leaven (yeast) and all leavened products (e.g. leavened bread) was removed from the house. The cleaning of the house and inspection for the presence of leaven (yeast) and leavened products had to be very thorough because it is not uncommon for young children to hide pieces of food in drawers, on shelves, behind furniture, etc. Exodus 12:6 informs that it was required for the Passover lamb (or goat) to be [humanely] slaughtered and dressed during the last hour of the day (a.k.a. the eleventh (11th) hour), which according to astronomical data, began at 5:19 p.m. and ended at at 6:19 p.m., because in Jerusalem, the sunset on Nisan 14 (which time-marked the 'end' of Nisan 14, and the 'beginning' of Nisan 15), corresponds to Wednesday, 5 April (GMT + 2:20:54) on the proleptic Gregorian calendar. To repeat for emphasis, the 'morning' that began at 'sunrise' on which the Israelites exited their houses, was still Nisan 15 (i.e. the selfsame day; see Exodus 12:51; Numbers 33:3; etc), because Nisan 15 'began' at 'sunset' that immediately preceded the 'sunrise' (i.e. the beginning of the 'morning') on which the Israelites departed from Egypt, and did not 'end' until the 'next' sunset which was approximately (but not exactly) twelve (12) hours later. The word 'approximately' is included above because the number of hours from sunrise to sunset was not exactly twelve (12) for most days of the year, but varied by usually one or more minutes from day to day, and was dependent on the season of the year. Also, except for the sunrise and the sunset, the time of day was measured using sundials because mechanical and electronic devices had not been invented at that time. The hourglass and similar devices were used mostly to measure time during the 'night-time' hours (e.g. to measure the time of the four 'watches' for guarding homes, towns, cities, etc). The explanation for two (2) discrete Passovers during the crucifixion week of Christ: - According to the ancient Hebrews, the New Moon (i.e. the beginning of the lunar month), began at the optical conjunction of the Sun, the Earth, and the Moon, when the Moon was virtually invisible to the naked eye when viewed from Jerusalem and the land of Israel. However, during the 70-year Babylonian captivity of the southern 2-tribe Kingdom of Judah, the vast majority of captive Jews adopted the Babylonian method for measuring the New Moon (i.e. the beginning of the lunar month), which was at the appearance of the first moon crescent 🌙, which lagged by 15.5 to 60 hours behind the Sun-Earth-Moon conjunction. This resulted in the use of two (2) Jewish calendars: - 🔹The TRUE Hebrew calendar which was used by the 'believing' Jews who were in the minority, and which included Christ and His disciples; and 🔹The FALSE Hebrew calendar which was used by the 'unbelieving' but highly religious Orthodox Jews who were in the majority. Christ and His disciples (and other 'believing' Jews who were in the minority), observed the Passover on God's 'appointed day' for the Passover which was on the TRUE day of Nisan 15. It is inconceivable that Christ would not comply with God's commandment by not observing the Passover on God's 'appointed day' on Nisan 15 (Exodus 12:1-28). However, the 'unbelieving' but highly religious Orthodox Jews (e.g. Pharisees, Sadducees, etc) who were in the majority, observed the Passover on the FALSE day for the Passover which in some years lagged by one day, and in some years lagged by two days. In the year of death of Christ (but not every year), the 'unbelieving' but highly religious Orthodox Jews who were in the majority, observed the Passover two (2) days after God's 'appointed day' for the Passover, which was Nisan 17, but they genuinely believed that Nisan 17 was Nisan 15. Odd, but true! In the year of death of Christ (but not every year), the FALSE date for the Passover coincided with the weekly Sabbath which 'began' at 'sunset' on Friday 7 April of A.D. 30 on the proleptic Gregorian calendar, which according to the astronomical data was at 6:20 p.m. (GMT+2:20:54), and ended at sunset on Saturday 8 April of A.D. 30 on the proleptic Gregorian calendar. And whenever the day of the annual Passover coincided with the weekly Sabbath, that particular weekly Sabbath was identified as a 'high day' (i.e. a special Sabbath) (see John 19:31). Because the 'high days' (i.e. a special Sabbaths), occurred once every approximately three (3) years, the candidate dates for the date of death of Christ are narrowed to Friday 7 April of A.D. 30, and Friday 3 April of A.D. 33. The overwhelming evidence from a combination of scriptures in the Bible, astronomical data, and historical records, proves that Christ was born in the early evening on 11 September 3 BC, and He died on Friday 7 April of A.D. 30. on the proleptic Gregorian calendar. However, the explanation of this is too lengthy to be included in this comment.

[@btgaston]

I thought the 4th cup was the wine from the branch of hyssop on the cross?

[@revolutionofordinaries]

That's speculative but so is my conclusion so there we go!

[@ZenithMusicProductions]

hi i just wanna know... how about the cup that he drank on the cross?

[@revolutionofordinaries]

It wasn't really a cup, was it? Great question though.

[@KaoXoni]

That vinaigre on the sponge was definitely a grape product, and Jesus having vowed in opening the last supper that *He would not drink of the fruit of the vine until in the Kingdom* leads to the conclusion that His first refusing the offered drink, then actively asking for it and taking a sip... must have marked the arrival, in other words: Destination:Kingdom. Finish Line. Telos. Accomplished. So indeed and timely, without delay, He drunk the fourth cup already in the Kingdom. Instant delivery. Must have also been that cup He was agonizing about in Gethsemane. I can't unsee that after learning about it. Of all possible sources, it had to be that RCC campaign material on the Eucharist. But that much (aß stated above) is accurately biblical and to be treasured. Regardless even of what they further spin it into... I mean, Ttranssubntration and bodily presence of Christ in the Host and wine does not necessarily follow, let alone the repertitive sacrifice and the mediation by priests, oh boy, no. But I gladly accept the gem of truth for free and refuse to buy the entire package from them if scripture alone does not sell it. Berean Bazaar, I guess.

[@roddumlauf9241]

A disagreement. Jesus drinks the 4th "Cup" on the Cross. Jesus said, I thirst, so they put wine on a sponge and held it up to Him on a hyssop branch. He drank from the fruit of the vine. Then He said "It is finished". What is finished ? Jesus transforms the Old Covenant Passover into the New Testament Passover, Holy Communion/The Eucharist (the Great Thanksgiving). The Passover Lamb has been sacrificed, Therefore let us keep the feast, as Paul says.

[@questor3119]

There is no reference to Yeshua taking part in a civil feast such as Channukah, merely that he was in the Temple grounds during that time. The Feast of Dedication is not one of G-d's commanded feast days, and is merely mentioned as a time/place in John. This is crucial, as otherwise Channukah and Purim would be foreshadowing a part of Yeshua's ministry. John 10:22-24 (KJV) 22 And it was at Jerusalem the feast of the dedication, and it was winter. 23 And Jesus walked in the temple in Solomon's porch.

[@revolutionofordinaries]

It doesn't directly say that he participated. However it would have been normal in his day to have participated. We would have expected him to have participated...why is he where they celebrate when they celebrated if he wasn't celebrating? Your statement, "This is crucial, as otherwise Channukah and Purim would be foreshadowing a part of Yeshua's ministry." is based on what? Why would Jesus participating automatically and unequivocally mean that it had to foreshadow something in his ministry? There is nothing in the Bible that states that must be the case. That seems like just a made up conclusion to me. We all do that...just how it seems in your comment.

[@donald102]

It is mentioned that He took 2 cups, why do you keep saying 3 cups? .. i heard a priest saying that it was only 2 cups as in the times of Christ they only drank the first, 3rd and 4th cup only

[@revolutionofordinaries]

The answer is in the video. Tradition was always 4 cups. We know what actions go with what cup. We only have record of two but he probably drank 3. He could have had 4.

[@shobhanapeters5721]

Wow! Thank you brother I always wonder why even in messianic synogaug they take 4 cups, and I think those days in Lord Jesus days they might have used bread like pita or chappati like from India. If there is no store bought element, they use chappati which is unleavened bread in India. Matzah looks like machine made not in Lord Jesus time.

[@revolutionofordinaries]

Thanks for sharing!

[@datepalm1969]

Contrary to widespread misinterpretation of the word 'wine' in the Bible text, for example, when Christ changed water into wine at the marriage in Cana of Galilee (John 2:1-11), the applicable definition of the word 'wine' is 'unfermented' (i.e. non-alcoholic) grape juice! Like many other words in the Bible text, the word 'wine' in the Bible text has a wide range of definitions, and as is the case of all other words in all ancient and modern languages of the world which have multiple definitions, the applicable definition is always determined by the context in which a particular word is used, and the context is contained in the text that surrounds the particular word. For example, the word 'table' in the English vocabulary may be used as: a noun (e.g. furniture, or a set of facts or figures systematically displayed in rows and columns); or as a verb (e.g. table a report for discussion or consideration at a meeting). The word 'wine' in the Bible text has a range of definitions. If the word 'wine' is used in a 'negative' context, it refers to 'alcoholic' wine (e.g. Genesis 9:21; Genesis 19:32; Proverbs 23:29-35; Proverbs 31:1-9; Luke 1:15; Acts 2:13; etc). However, if the same word 'wine' is used in a 'positive' context, it refers to 'unfermented' fruit juice which was typically 'unfermented' grape juice (e.g. Genesis 14:18; Psalm 104:15; Ecclesiastes 9:7; Song of Solomon 5:1; John 2:1-11; 1 Timothy 3:8; Revelation 6:6; etc). Notice that scriptures in the Bible explicitly state that the word 'wine' in some instances applies to 'unfermented' grape juice that is: - 🔹In the wine presses, and therefore, is 'unfermented' (Isaiah 16:10); 🔹Contained in the cluster [of grapes] before the grapes are harvested (Isaiah 65:8). When Christ instituted the communion at the last supper during the night of the Passover (Matthew 26:26-29; Mark 14:22-25; Luke 22:17-20), the 'cup' contained 'unfermented' (i.e. non-alcoholic) grape juice-OBVIOUSLY!!! It is inconceivable that Christ would use a 'fermented' (i.e. alcoholic) beverage which represents corruption, to depict His incorruptible life-blood. At the last supper during the night of the Passover, Christ drank only one (1) cup of 'unfermented' grape juice which is described by several terms in the New Testament of the Bible for the purpose of informing various aspects of that 'wine' which depicts the life sacrifice of Christ. Giving thanks for the cup (Luke 20:17) does not infer that that particular cup was different from the cup of the New Testament (Luke 20:20), or was different from the cup of blessing (1 Corinthians 10:16), etc. It was one (1) cup that depicted several aspects or facets of the life sacrifice of Christ. The word 'bread' in the New Testament of the Bible can refer to either 'leavened' or 'unleavened' bread, and the disambiguation is easily determined from the context in which the said word is used, which is contained in the surrounding text. Therefore, the word 'bread' in Luke 22:17-20 obviously refers to the 'unleavened' bread because on Nisan 14 which was immediately PRIOR TO the day of the Passover on the TRUE date of Nisan 15, all leaven (yeast) and leavened products (e.g. leavened bread), and anything else that was fermented by yeast, potentially including fermented grape juice (see Note below), was removed from the house in which Christ and His disciples celebrated the Passover (i.e. there was neither leaven (yeast) nor leavened products (e.g. leavened bread, fermented/alcoholic wine, etc), in the house in which Christ and His disciples celebrated the Passover! Note: It is highly unlikely that alcoholic wine was present in the house in which Christ and His twelve disciples celebrated the Passover, because it is highly likely that the owner of the said house was a Godly person who therefore, did not consume alcoholic beverages. Also, remember that the day of Passover was also the first (1st) day of the seven-day long Feast of Unleavened Bread (Exodus 12:15-20) which 'began' at sunset on Nisan 15, and 'ended' at sunset on the twenty-first (21st) day of Nisan; i.e. Nisan 21 (see Exodus 12:18). Therefore, leaven (yeast) or leavened products (e.g. leavened bread, fermented grape juice, etc) were NOT permitted to be in the upper room in which Christ and His twelve disciples were celebrating the Passover, nor in any other parts of the house (Mark 14:12-17). On a side note, following the death of Christ, the 'ceremonial' aspect of the Feasts of the Lord of the Old Covenant in the Old Testament, which were a shadow of the New Covenant (see Colossians 2:16-17), were abolished because to the New Testament saints, Christ became the Passover, and He 'tabernacles' with the New Testament saints, and He atones for their sins, etc. Therefore, the ceremonial aspects of the 7-day long Feast of Unleavened Bread was also abolished at the death of Christ. The observance of the weekly Sabbath is also abolished because the New Testament saints have entered into God's 'rest' when they received God's Holy Spirit like the disciples in the Bible on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:1-4; 2:17-18; 2:33; 2:37-40; 1 Corinthians 14:21-22; Isaiah 28:11-12; etc). It is strongly emphasised that in order to qualify as a New Testament saint, it is absolutely essential for the individual to repent, be baptized, and receive God's Holy Spirit like the disciples in the Bible with the visible and audible manifestation or sign of speaking in 'other' (foreign, unknown to the person who is speaking) 'tongues' (languages) (Acts 2:1-4; 2:17-18; 2:33; 2:37-40; etc). The passage of scripture that begins in 1 Corinthians 11:17 and ends in 1 Corinthians 14:40, is a 'mandatory' procedure for all 'church meetings' which is indicated by the phrase 'when you come together' or similar. This phrase is stated seven (7) times in the above passage of scripture that should not have any chapter divisions because it is on the same topic of a church meeting (i.e. when you come together). The passage of scripture in 1 Corinthians 11:17 through 14:40 'appears' to state that not all believers speak in tongues, heal, work miracles, prophesy, etc, but that is stated in the context of a church meeting that MUST include 2 or at most 3 messages in tongues by course (i.e. consecutively), and each followed by an interpretation (1 Corinthians 14:27), and also 2 or at most 3 prophesies (1 Corinthians 14:29). Notice that 1 Corinthians 14:37 is explicit that the procedures for all church meetings (i.e. when you come together), which are described in 1 Corinthians 11:17 - 14:40, are the 'commandments of God' (see 1 Corinthians 14:37), and are therefore, mandatory! The so-called church organisations that identify as Christians, but do not comply with the procedures in 1 Corinthians 11:17 - 14:40, do so at their peril. If you have not done so already, I urge you to find a local Pentecostal-type church that will assist you to repent, be baptised of your own will, and receive God's Holy Spirit like the disciples in the Bible on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:37-40).

[@revolutionofordinaries]

I am sorry but you are wrong on the definition of wine in John 2 and elsewhere. Thanks for taking the time to write.

[@melharness9385]

Experiment: squeeze out some fresh grapes with it’s natural skins which have yeast and see what happens within hours! It ferments. Also Passover is not during harvest so any wine in March/April could not be fresh and nonalcoholic.

[@KaoXoni]

​@@revolutionofordinariesthat essay could have been an Adventist copy-paste.

[@revolutionofordinaries]

@@KaoXoni I have googled trying to find out without any luck.

[@KaoXoni]

@@revolutionofordinaries oh wow. I did not literally mean plagiarism or so, just Kind of feelinghe groove and guessing/suggesting I recognized the typical talking points.

[@Rose-vq4jp]

Some say 5 cups, some.say 4 cups, and some say 3 cups. So how many cups actually that Jesus drink?

[@revolutionofordinaries]

Most likely three or four. Probably not two or five.

[@suzannemoore6115]

Jesus didn’t celebrate Hanukkah. He walked on King Solomon’s portico.

[@revolutionofordinaries]

We will agree to disagree. That's fine.

[@GCM4u]

WRONG

[@suzannemoore6115]

@@GCM4u John 10:23 and Jesus was walking in the temple courts in Solomon's portico...

[@suzannemoore6115]

@@revolutionofordinaries John 10:23 and Jesus was walking in the temple courts in Solomon's portico...

[@dalesmith9441]

it was one cup it was not many of cups he do not know the scriptures

[@revolutionofordinaries]

cups of wine...he drank three times. Passover had four cups. This is historical fact.

[@GCM4u]

shows you need to connect more inthe root you are connected on

[@nettiebutts6672]

It was fine til he got to the lie, I hope after a year, he has studied and researched, The Messiah was from tribe of Judah, The origin middle east was also dark skinned people, Judah job is to shine a light, It's not a color, or any specialty, It's only for identity purposes. And my hair is also wool, But if I think for one minute that makes me better, It's a bad mistake, For whosoever will, let him come, Lies and deception no longer necessary.

[@revolutionofordinaries]

what lie?