World Religions: Who's Right... Catholics? | Eric Hovind & Tony Ramsek | Creation Today Show

Is Roman Catholicism a pure expression of Christianity, or does it stray from the teachings of the Bible? We’re examining key doctrines of the Catholic Church-such as the authority of the Pope, the role of Mary, purgatory, and salvation-and comparing them to the clear teachings of Scripture. Are these beliefs rooted in biblical truth, or do they add to or distort the Gospel message?
This isn’t just a theological debate; it’s a matter of eternal significance. Whether you’re Catholic, Protestant, or just curious about what the Bible says, you will be challenged to think deeply and seek truth. Don’t miss this important discussion that could change the way you view faith, tradition, and the ultimate authority of God’s Word.
Join Eric Hovind and Tony Ramsek to see what Roman Catholics get right and what they get wrong compared to the Scriptures!

[@VirginMostPowerfull]

I'm a former Protestant, in obedience to Jesus I follow the Church he founded the Catholic Church. Protestants all say they get the Bible by the Holy Spirit yet all contradict each other. There is no unity, no truth. Only the Catholic Church can assure infallibility in teaching and consistency in dogma.

[@helenenikki2391]

Lies. Have you opened the Bible - the Holy Scripture? Please do show me where the Scripture says that Messiah started the catholic church please. And if you have read the Holy Scripture please explain to me why there is additional doctrine that the Catholic church added and says it supersedes the Holy Scripture? What about sacrificing Messiah week after week?-I thought He died once for all? How about the confessing to a priest and he (another fallible human being) tell you that you are forgiven????? Only Christ can forgive sins and when He died, buried and reseurrected, HE told us that He is the intermediary between Father and us. I could go on and on since I was brought up in the false religion. We should not be following any "denomination" - catholicism is right up there with mormonism, jehovah witness and islam quite frankly. Please read the Holy Scripture and pray for the Holy Spirit to show you the Truth once you humble yourself to ask. I will continue to pray for all of you that are under heavy deceit right now.

[@justfromcatholic]

@@helenenikki2391 You wrote "Please do show me where the Scripture says that Messiah started the catholic church please." Well, Scripture nowhere says Jesus started your denomination either - such a poor argument! Additional doctrines?: That is according your opinion based on what you were told by your pastors. Forgiveness of sin: Christ gave the authority to forgive sin (John 20:22_23). It is God or Christ who forgive sins through the Ministry of those priests. As analogy it is God and/or Christ who saves through the ministry of the missionaries. Sacrifice of the Mass: According to Heb. 13:10 believers have altar from which those who serve in the tent (Levitical priests) have no right to eat. In the Old Testament priests have the right to eat some of offering or sacrifice (Lev. 6:26; 7:6; 24:9, Num. 18:10-11). Altar, sacrifice and priests always come together. In 1 Cor. 10:21 Paul used the term “the table of the Lord”, not altar, in referring to partaking the Eucharist (1 Cor. 10:16). But in Scripture Table of the Lord is synonymous with altar. Mal. 1:6-8 says: “O priests, who despise my name. But you say, 'How have we despised your name?' By offering polluted food upon my altar. But you say, 'How have we polluted you?' By saying that the LORD's table may be despised. When you offer blind animals in sacrifice, is that not evil? And when you offer those that are lame or sick, is that not evil? Present that to your governor; will he accept you or show you favor? says the LORD of hosts”. Christ is no re-sacrificed in every Mass, but the same sacrifice Christ is made on the cross in every Mass. To understand how such thing is possible we need to go to Rev. 13:8 that says Christ as the Lamb slain before/from the foundation of the world. The Greek verb "slain" is in Greek passive perfect tense. Unlike that of English Greek perfect tense indicates the action described by the verb (to be slain) was completed in the past (at foundation or creation of the world) with continuing result to the present . For comparison the phrase "it is written" (Mat. 2:5; 4:4, 6, 7, 10 etc.), referring to Scripture, is also in Greek passive perfect tense. Whenever we buy a new Bible in any language, Scripture is reprinted but it is not rewritten. Thus Christ’ single sacrifice on the cross can be made present in every Mass without Him being re-crucified or re-slain again. The relation between His being slain from the foundation of the world with crucifixion is stated in Heb. 9:26: “for then he [Christ] would have had to suffer repeatedly since the foundation of the world [not since crucifixion]. But as it is, he has appeared once for all at the end of the ages to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.”

[@justfromcatholic]

What the Catholic Church teach on justification: Justification is on-going process that includes faith and sanctification. Through Justification we are transformed by grace from our unrighteous state to righteous one, through infusion of the righteousness of God through Christ in us. We do not and cannot become righteous by our own effort and we cannot be righteous and sinners at the same time. Therefore, our entire sins (past, present, and future) must be forgiven and washed away - they are neither imputed on Christ nor infused in Him. Christ willingly offered Himself to die on the cross to atone the sins of ALL MEN, but God did not punish Him for those sins. Scriptural reasons for Catholic belief on justification 1. Scripture says through Christ we are made righteous (Rom. 5:19). 2. What makes us deserve hell is our sins - through Adam we are made sinners (Rom. 5:19). Scripture says the soul that sins shall die (Eze. 18:4) and death is the wages of sin (Rom. 6:23). Death refers to hell, not physical death. According to Scripture there are deadly (mortal) and non-deadly sins (venial) as it is written in 1 John 5:16-17. According to 1 John 3:8 he who sins is of the devil. But we cannot avoid sinning both deadly and non-deadly, even after becoming believers (Heb. 10:26-27, James 1:15). 3. Why do we need to be made righteous through Christ to be saved? According to Scripture it is righteousness that delivers from death (Pro. 10:2, 11:4). “Whoever is steadfast in righteousness will live” (Pro. 11:19, ESV). “In the path of righteousness is life, and in its pathway there is no death” (Pro. 12:28, ESV). Jesus said in Mat. 25:46 that the righteous shall go to eternal life. 4. Faith is counted as righteousness (Rom. 4:3). In Gen. 15:6 what was counted (Hebrew חָשַׁב, Strong H2803) to Abraham for righteousness is faith. But what was counted (the same חָשַׁב) for righteousness to Phinehas in Psalms 106:31 was not faith but what he did as described in verse 30 (in more detail in Num. 25:7-8). Scripture says (ESV): Whoever practices righteousness is righteous, as he [Christ] is righteous (1 Jo. 3:7). Our ability to have faith and to do what is right comes from and is only possible by grace through Christ - apart from Him we can do nothing (John 15:5). 5. But Catholics are not obsessed with accumulating righteous deeds - Ecl. 5:16 warns us (ESV): “Be not overly righteous.” The reason is those accumulated righteous deeds will be forgotten through committing one deadly sin as it is written in Eze. 33:12-13 (ESV): “The righteous shall not be able to live by his righteousness when he sins. Though I say to the righteous that he shall surely live, yet if he trusts in his righteousness and does injustice, none of his righteous deeds shall be remembered, but in his injustice that he has done he shall die." Since, in Catholic teaching, our ability to do righteous works comes from and is only possible by grace there is no unfairness from God’s side when He ignores our past accumulated righteous works when we sin. It will be unfair if we contribute, even partially, in doing those righteous works. 6. God does not demand us to be perfectly righteous (sin-free) through-out our life. What He demands from us when we sin is written in Eze. 33:14-16 (ESV, emphasis in capital added): “Again, though I say to the wicked, ‘You shall surely die,’ yet IF HE TURNS FROM HIS SIN AND DOES WHAT IS JUST AND RIGHT, if the wicked restores the pledge, gives back what he has taken by robbery, and walks in the statutes of life, not doing injustice, he shall surely live; he shall not die. NONE OF THE SINS THAT HE HAS COMMITTED SHALL BE REMEMBERED AGAINST HIM. HE HAS DONE WHAT IS JUST AND RIGHT; HE SHALL SURELY LIVE.” Whenever we sin, in Catholic teaching, grace from God will move and enable us to turn from sin (or to repent) AND to do what is right and just. Doing what is just and right is known in Catholic teaching as TEMPORAL PUNISHMENT. Our past sins will be forgotten, and we will live or regain our righteous state back. God will ignore our past accumulated sins if we repent AND do what is just and right. This is gracious act of God as Scripture says: “If you, O LORD, should mark iniquities, O Lord, who could stand?” (Psa. 130:3). Rom. 4:7-8 says (ESV): “Blessed are those whose lawless deeds re forgiven, and whose sins are covered; blessed is the man against whom the Lord will not count his sin” 7. When we die and stand for judgment (Heb. 9:27) we will go to heaven if we die in righteous state, that is, without any un-repented deadly sin. One un-repented deadly sin is enough to send a person to hell. If a person dies with un-repented non-deadly sin and/or temporal punishment he/she will go through purification in purgatory before entering heaven. Our salvation depends neither on the number of sins (deadly and non-deadly) nor on the number of righteous works we do but depends on grace that enables us to die in righteous state.

[@justfromcatholic]

Why the Catholic Church has Tradition as another authority? The Greek word (noun) for tradition is παράδοσις (Strong G3862) and it appears 13 times in 13 verses of the New Testament: Mat. 15:2, 3, 6; Mar. 7:3, 5, 8, 9, 13; 1 Cor. 11:2, Gal. 1:14, Col. 2:8, 2 Th. 2:15, 3:6. While Jesus did condemn man-made tradition of the Pharisees and so did Paul in Col. 2:8, the same Greek word is also applied to the tradition of the apostles in 1 Cor. 11:2 and 2 Th. 2:15 and 3:6 which say (ESV, emphasis in capital is added): 1 Cor. 11:2: “Now I commend you because you remember me in everything and maintain the TRADITIONS (παράδοσις) even as I delivered them to you.” 2 Th. 2:15: “So then, brothers, stand firm and hold to the TRADITIONS (παράδοσις) that you were taught by us, EITHER BY OUR SPOKEN WORD OR BY OUR LETTER.” 2 Th. 3:6: “Now we command you, brothers, in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that you keep away from any brother who is walking in idleness and not in accord with the TRADITION (παράδοσις) that you received from us.” According to 2 Th. 2:15 there are oral (spoken) and written (letter/epistle) tradition from the apostles. Because it is NOT written, how do we know that Tradition is trustworthy? In John 16:13 Jesus promised the Holy Spirit to His apostles to guide them in truth, including things to come. Certainly, the Holy Spirit did not mute Himself or became inactive after the death of the last apostle or after the last book of NT was written - why would He?

[@justfromcatholic]

Scriptural support of Infallibility of the Pope and college of bishops: In Mat. 16:19 and 18:18 the phrase “whatever you bind/loose” is written in Greek active aorist tense while that of “will be bound/loosened in heaven” is in Greek passive perfect tense, NOT in future tense. Unlike that of English Greek perfect tense indicate the action associated with the verb was completed in the past with continuing effect to the present. Thus, whatever they bind or loose ALWAYS IN AGREEMENT with that was already bound/loosened in heaven. Does it point to infallibility, even the word infallible is not used? It does NOT mean whatever they say/write/do is always right; the verses say: “whatever you bind/loose”, not “whatever you say/write/do”. Popes and college of bishops are sinners - some were horrible sinners. The popes and college of bishops are not infallible by their own power but by the guidance of the Holy Spirit. In John 16:13 Jesus promised the Holy Spirit to His apostles to guide them in truth, including things to come. Certainly, the Holy Spirit did not mute Himself or became inactive after the death of the last apostle or after the last book of NT was written - why would He? Why we need infallibility if we have Scripture and the Holy Spirit to guide us? Scripture is neither self-defined nor self-interpreted. There is no single verse in the Bible that says which books and how many of them belong to Scripture. We need authority outside the Scripture to define what is known as Canon (list of inspired books) of Scripture and that authority must be infallible - otherwise we have the wrong books. If Scripture is self-interpreted, then whoever read and interpret Scripture under the guidance of the same Holy Spirit should have the same interpretation. But reality shows such thing did not happen. We need infallible interpreter to know which one is correct.

[@ajohnson929]

Equal glimpses of the untrue.

[@justfromcatholic]

Why Catholics believe in Sacrifice of the Mass? According to Heb. 13:10 believers have altar from which those who serve in the tent (Levitical priests) have no right to eat. In the Old Testament priests have the right to eat some of offering or sacrifice (Lev. 6:26; 7:6; 24:9, Num. 18:10-11). Altar, sacrifice and priests always come together. In 1 Cor. 10:21 Paul used the term “the table of the Lord”, not altar, in referring to partaking the Eucharist (1 Cor. 10:16). But in Scripture Table of the Lord is synonymous with altar. Mal. 1:6-8 says: “O priests, who despise my name. But you say, 'How have we despised your name?' By offering polluted food upon my altar. But you say, 'How have we polluted you?' By saying that the LORD's table may be despised. When you offer blind animals in sacrifice, is that not evil? And when you offer those that are lame or sick, is that not evil? Present that to your governor; will he accept you or show you favor? says the LORD of hosts”. Christ is no re-sacrificed in every Mass, but the same sacrifice Christ is made on the cross in every Mass. To understand how such thing is possible we need to go to Rev. 13:8 that says Christ as the Lamb slain before/from the foundation of the world. The Greek verb "slain" is in Greek passive perfect tense. Unlike that of English Greek perfect tense indicates the action described by the verb (to be slain) was completed in the past (at foundation or creation of the world) with continuing result to the present . For comparison the phrase "it is written" (Mat. 2:5; 4:4, 6, 7, 10 etc.), referring to Scripture, is also in Greek passive perfect tense. Whenever we buy a new Bible in any language, Scripture is reprinted but it is not rewritten. Thus Christ’ single sacrifice on the cross can be made present in every Mass without Him being re-crucified or re-slain again. The relation between His being slain from the foundation of the world with crucifixion is stated in Heb. 9:26: “for then he [Christ] would have had to suffer repeatedly since the foundation of the world [not since crucifixion]. But as it is, he has appeared once for all at the end of the ages to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.”

[@justfromcatholic]

Despite having (one of) Catholic parent, the speaker has poor knowledge of what Catholics believe. One the main reasons of Reformation is on Justification - or how a sinful man find acceptance in the judgment of righteous God. Let us look first and examine the teaching of the Reformers: According to the Reformers Justification is by faith alone and through Justification an exchange took place between believers and Christ, known as double imputation. The believers got Christ’ righteousness imputed on them as if that righteousness were theirs while they remain sinners. Christ got believers’ entire sins (past, present, future) imputed on Him as if those sins were His while He remains sinless. There is no limit of either amount or type of believers' sins imputed on Him. Christ willingly offered Himself to take the punishment of those sins by dying on the cross or God punished Christ for the sins of believers, and He paid the penalty of those sins in full. Is what the Reformers taught, which you follow, scriptural?: 1. The phrase "justified by faith" appears four times in New Testament (Rom. 3:28, 5:1, Gal. 2:16, 3:24). New Testament was written in Greek and the one in Rom. 3:28 is in Greek passive present tense while the rest are in Greek passive aorist tense . Both tenses do not indicate once for all justification. If Scripture teaches faith-alone justification, then the Holy Spirit would inspire Paul to write the phrase "justified by faith" in Greek passive perfect tense. Unlike that of English Greek perfect tense indicates the action described by the verb (to be justified) was completed in the past with continuing effect to the present. 2. Scripture denies double imputation in Eze. 18:20 (ESV): “The righteousness of the righteous shall be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself.” 3. Scripture says that we lose righteousness by sinning or we cannot be righteous and sinner at the same time. Eze. 33:13 (ESV) says: “The righteous shall not be able to live by his righteousness when he sins. Though I say to the righteous that he shall surely live, yet if he trusts in his righteousness and does injustice, none of his righteous deeds shall be remembered, but in his injustice that he has done he shall die." Death here refers to hell, not physical death. 4. By declaring believers as righteous who remain sinners and punishing Christ for the sins He did not commit on the cross, God did abomination according to what Scripture says in Pro. 17:15 (ESV): “He who justifies the wicked and he who condemns the righteous are both alike an abomination to the LORD.”