PHASOR DIAGRAM ( INDUCTIVE LOAD) FOR A SINGLE PHASE TRANSFORMER

A complete guide to drawing phasor diagram for a single phase transformer connected to an inductive load. Highly animated video for simple understanding

[@takudzwawillard3718]

I have never seen a better video than this on KZbin ❤

[@m_aaron5501]

Where

[@ishanisaha3510]

Best video on youtube to understand this concept. Appreciate it man. Love it

[@digvijayzambre5409]

Thank you so much. Now l can clear next 3 years easily .

[@BMAITI]

collage pass out hone ka bab 1st time clearly understand transformer phase diagram. many many thanks sir.

[@shourov3161]

Mashallah Brother.. God Bless u. U explain it so well. It proves that how clearly You understand it.

[@ammvolmet]

Best ever explanation on youtube. Thank you sir. 🙏🙏

[@ramukaka492]

Such a beautiful explaination .My all doughts cleared by you . thanks 👍

[@poojaadagall2039]

Ya exaclty

[@shekharchaurasiya5236]

🎯 Key Takeaways for quick navigation: 00:00 🧭 The phasor diagram is a crucial tool for understanding single-phase transformer circuits, showing the relationship between various parameters. 01:06 ⚡️ Five important parameters to be drawn on the phasor diagram on the secondary side: V2, I2X2, I2R2, I2, and E2. 03:33 🔌 To draw V2 on the phasor diagram, first, draw E2 lagging Phi by 90 degrees, then add -I2R2 and -J(I2X2) to get the resultant vector. 06:36 🔄 On the primary side, draw E1 (lagging Phi) and Iam (along Phi). Draw Iw (90 degrees leading Iam) and then I1 (-I2 reversed) to get the resultant I1. 08:57 🔁 To draw V1, slightly tweak the diagram by shifting E1 upwards with a negative sign, then add I1R1 and I1X1 to get the resultant vector. 10:29 💡 The angles between V1-I1 (Phi1) and V2-I2 (Phi2) indicate the power factor of the transformer. V1 leads I1 and V2 leads I2 in an inductive circuit. Made with HARPA AI

[@rolwalingengineers6390]

Very helpful , lot of thanks from Nepal

[@muhammedyaseen2370]

Great explanation.....easy to understand.... thank you very much

[@jagruti_rs]

What a beautiful explanation... Much much needed... Please upload more such worthy lectures ✨🌹❤️

[@360GAMING-z9p]

YOu saved my 5 hours , Great Way oF explanation ♥...

[@ektagambhir4187]

Best learning video for transformers i have ever gone through

[@benalexandre4423]

very helpful thanks for uploading

[@Suveta]

Beautiful explaintion 💖💖🙏🙏🙏🙏

[@shikharsingh6367]

Best video....nicely explained Xplanater🤟

[@hareemnaz6759]

Explained perfectly. Thank You Sir.

[@poojaadagall2039]

Wow, thank u sir for giving a exellent explaination which I thought its very difficult to learn and thank u once again sir

[@Stoicbanda]

Never such such beautiful explanation.. Thanks for yr hard work.. Please upload for resistive and capacitive loads also.. Please

[@amitaniket5472]

Wonderful explanation through animation. Thanks a lot. Keep it up

[@prateekmazumdar5210]

U nailed it bro...really...it helped me a lot....thnku verry much....keep it up

[@Prasannasivved]

you explained very well in a short form. thank you

[@prasanthreddy7402]

Superr the way ur explanation and tq

[@AhmedNazir]

Great Explanation..... Salute

[@rahatfaruk9747]

thanks a lot. Can you make a video why we tweak the diagram that means E1 to -E1... please make it as soon as possible...

[@vikashkumar3356]

Have same dout

[@michelle.adaaaa]

According to land law E1 = -E1

[@gecjyoutube379]

@@michelle.adaaaa but it has been already been considered while determining the phasor of E1

[@liewts1049]

E1 must be taken as opposite phase of E2 due to back emf principle. It is not about tweaking it.

[@TusharDu]

👏👏👏👏👏 SUPERB EXPLANATION SIR

[@akmarkan2490]

Incredible Sir✨

[@arijitbanerjee7404]

Nice explained bro.... Thank you soo much.

[@hassanmorad7376]

Outstanding, amazing and fantastic

[@rojast5432]

Thank you so much sir ...class nal arta aglilla ..but now I understood.

[@great_India3344]

Thank you madam. So well explained.

[@RohitKumar-nu7mg]

I need a online teacher like this

[@maksymkloka7819]

Wow! This is great. Excellent job. I want to poster up the image and have it at my desk at work.

[@akshatjain7416]

you really made my concept very clear

[@mehulagrawal9252]

Cleared my doubt. Thanks for this video.

[@prateekgupta1224]

great.. u are up to the name of your channel xplanator.. good going. upload more videos soon

[@mvasudev1166]

One of the best video

[@vikasgupta-hl9sq]

Fisrt time cleared every thing

[@shreeharij5288]

most difficult made very simple and understandable

[@mdashifurrahmansourov7436]

Really amazing video

[@wellery6101]

Thank u a lot for such clear explanation!

[@arindomdehingia7010]

Very Helpful.. Thanks a lot

[@kunalsawalakhe]

Very Good Video for learning

[@mailtosabarajan]

Excellent explanation....

[@Opticx25]

thanks maam really helped a lot

[@golamrabby603]

Very Good Explanation :)

[@murshithahamed8228]

super. i understood completely thanks

[@wellingtonpazmino58]

Hi, Excellent video. Could you explain in more detail what you mentioned at 09:20?

[@lastproduction5576]

Good question, physically E1 and E2 are in phase 0° shift (they have the same formula, only differ in coefficient N1 and N2, +-(N1 or N2)*dfi/dt, +- depending on induced E direction, + to diminish U what caused i and E, - if we direct E in series to U). So basically -E1 is a convention to show us the cause - effect, firstly we have U1 which in close loop produces i1, then im makes Fi (flux), which induce E1 (with that manipulation (-E1) we can only get U1 in upward direction U1= i1*R1+ jX1*i1+(-E1)) and then E2. we can see in phasor diagram order U1, then E1 then Fi then E2 then U2 in reality we have U1, Fi then E1 and E2 and finally U2.

[@shubhankarmaitra4231]

thank you for clear explanation

[@bharatrawat4590]

Supperbbb video .... 👍👍👍

[@ShahnawazKhan-lw4ko]

Fabulous 🤩 great work👏

[@rajendratare4377]

Simply wonderful

[@elorm294]

Thanks so much for your help.

[@shuvayandasgupta5031]

Best explanation Sir!

[@ArunKumar-hs5ke]

Could you please tell, which software you have used

[@yashgajjar4838]

This is very helpful for me. Thanks a lot

[@malcolmman2915]

Your explanations are so good! Can u tell me what software do you uses ?

[@Xplanator]

It is a presentation done using MS POWERPOINT

[@SATISHKUMAR-tb2bl]

Very good how humble you r #xplanator

[@SATISHKUMAR-tb2bl]

@@Xplanator love you😍😘🤗🥰

[@pandasangram27]

Where every " Problem" has a simple explanation. Btw nice video

[@Xplanator]

There are times when you know the answer but you don't know why it is the right answer.. hence every solution has an explanation :)

[@abhyudaybhargava628]

Excellent explanation!!! Salute from IITD students-Ansh and Abhyuday, few hours before our Mid sem exam.

[@mr.leonhart4629]

weird flex LOL

[@dineshmahato3378]

fully effective video

[@solinsaadi2473]

great thank you so much 💚

[@jubairsourove6526]

this tutorial helped me a lot!!! keep it going! ✌

[@Xplanator]

+Jubair Sourove : Thank You!

[@kabalida3660]

Really helpful. Thanks a lot

[@shivavemula5300]

Great it really helped me

[@mekalasaikumar7105]

shiva vemula r u snist

[@adityadudhane8370]

Best explanation Sir

[@aletymanishreddy2272]

Good explanation bro

[@amankataria4466]

Thank you so much sir this is very helpful

[@shivamsinghsomvanshi4309]

wow amazing

[@AnkitKumar-ur1dh]

chaa gye guru !!!!!!!!

[@azorahai1319]

it was of good help to me thanks

[@Highseptonmusic]

Thanks bro. Great explanation

[@liewts1049]

If losses is taken into consideration, then I2’ is not the exact opposite phase of I2,. I2should be directly opposite phase with KV2 instead, then I2’ shall be slightly lagging by KV2. Hope this helps.

[@baldovincadenamejia244]

Hi, why is I2 at an angle to E2 and not exactly at 90 degrees (lagging)?

[@amololokar1382]

sir, if E1 exactly phas apposition to V1 so why the not cancel out each other and primary current is zero

[@amololokar1382]

sir, give me reply plz

[@kunalsawalakhe]

amol Olokar : V1 induces E1 in primary winding. In a way V1 is input and E1 is induced EMF becoz of V1

[@kunalsawalakhe]

electrifystudents.wordpress.com

[@haeyu-ro8090]

Sir, If the K is equals 2, is the vector I2' more long?

[@yarnampreethishanthi8305]

can i get the link for the single phase transformer phasor diagram for resistive load.

[@bhawika902]

awesome................................

[@hrithiksharma4683]

why we have to tilt E1 in opposite direction @ 9:08

[@Xplanator]

The emf in primary and secondary are phase shifted by 180 degrees. Hence whatever is the value of voltage in E1, value in E2(with suitable magnitude considering turn ratio) will be exact 180 degrees out of phase with respect to E1. In phasor diagram, vectors 180 degree out of phase are shown with opposite lines, hence E2= -E1, hence in opposite direction

[@nadeemkhalid2543]

GREAT EXPLANATION

[@seerapushankarreddy]

Nice vedio plz show d resistive nd conductive phasors also

[@sameersah4329]

Very well describe

[@djchami1703]

thanks a lot.. this is very usefull

[@seablue1085]

Nice explanation, can you do more videos about induction motor with animation!, thanks

[@wyattb3138]

I graduated mechanical but am challenging myself to make an adapter for 60Hz 120V AC. Thanks!

[@shreyajha158]

Best video💯💯💯

[@modernlogix]

GREAT VIDEO

[@sridevinune9353]

Tq very much i really really helped me a lotttt😍😍

[@farzeensayyed1728]

Very good🤗🤗

[@ranjitdas1178]

Awesome.... Thank you sir....

[@sayedhussaini4894]

Please make a video on capacitive and resistive load phasor diagram..... Please

[@pratikdey8062]

The explanation was good,but Sir why you took E1 on the positive y axis,both E1 and e2 must be on -ve y axis

[@AanmoneySakib]

You said in -5.55 that " in an Inductive circuit, X leads R ". Can you please elaborate this? Afik it lags.

[@forhadhossen6689]

Just great...

[@Xplanator]

Thank You!

[@noorazlanhamzah8707]

Why is it necessary to invert E, to become negative E

[@lastproduction5576]

Good question, physically E1 and E2 are in phase 0° shift (they have the same formula, only differ in coefficient N1 and N2, +-(N1 or N2)*dfi/dt, +- depending on induced E direction, + to diminish U what caused i and E, - if we direct E in series to U). So basically -E1 is a convention to show us the cause - effect, firstly we have U1 which in close loop produces i1, then im makes Fi (flux), which induce E1 (with that manipulation (-E1) we can only get U1 in upward direction U1= i1*R1+ jX1*i1+(-E1)) and then E2. we can see in phasor diagram order U1, then E1 then Fi then E2 then U2 in reality we have U1, Fi then E1 and E2 and finally U2.

[@BipinKumar-zg9de]

Please explain me why E1 is 180 degree phase shifted

[@jeetendrasingh760]

bahut mst sir

[@suvrojitmitraRailFan2893]

Nice explanation sir

[@ahmedabduljabbarabdulkaree365]

Very good

[@sankarsanbhattacheryya7498]

Sir i have seen in some books that -E1 is taken to be equal to V1 prime. What is V1 prime can you explain please

[@kunalsawalakhe]

Sankarsan Bhattacheryya : when primary drops I1R1 and I1X1 are neglected then that can be considered. That must be diagram of ideal transformer.

[@kunalsawalakhe]

electrifystudents.wordpress.com

[@mscourseiit-k7538]

Sir ne v1 nikalne ke liye e1 ki jagah -e1 kyun le liya

[@mscourseiit-k7538]

At 9:29

[@janhavikatkar2991]

Thank you for this video