ODE existence and uniqueness theorem

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Dr Peyam

Dr Peyam

Күн бұрын

Пікірлер: 37
@tekaaable
@tekaaable 5 жыл бұрын
I take notes, pause, rewind, pause, rewind ... Spending a couple of hours on this vid to get every step of it! Thank you! Im a fresh grad student i math, and I really appriciate this. Best regards from Norway
@JackSPk
@JackSPk 4 жыл бұрын
Thank you very much! the context you add while advancing into the proof make it much easier to follow and understand whats happening. Also your jokes are great! :)
@Rundas69420
@Rundas69420 6 жыл бұрын
Integral Equations look very interesting. It would be nice to see something about them from you since I haven't seen anything from the topic of I.E yet and you make everything understandable. So maybe this type of equation would be something for next year :D
@sedeanimugamez5418
@sedeanimugamez5418 6 жыл бұрын
You are the most epic gamer I love your videos thank you
@OtherTheDave
@OtherTheDave 6 жыл бұрын
It always makes my chuckle when I hear “x not ” instead of “x naught ” .
@willnewman9783
@willnewman9783 6 жыл бұрын
Good video. Does this proof also work for complex differential equations?
@MichaelRothwell1
@MichaelRothwell1 4 жыл бұрын
Lovely proof. I haven't looked up the Banach fixed point theorem, but it seems intuitively obvious. Just define xn=T^n(x) and you have a Cauchy sequence (due to the contraction property) and so converges (by completeness) and by a simple limit argument Tx=x (just like for recursively defined sequences of real numbers). From the contraction property we easily show uniqueness. Done!
@MichaelRothwell1
@MichaelRothwell1 4 жыл бұрын
P. S. I came here after watching your great recent video illustrating an ODE with a non-unique solution "because it's not Lipschitz", taken straight from here. BTW, the Lipschitz condition would be equivalent to a bounded derivative for a differentiable function, so it's clear that √x is not Lipschitz for x>0 and so also not Lipschitz for x≥0.
@ninck8992
@ninck8992 6 жыл бұрын
Great video! Can you show us why there isn't a similar theorem for PDE? I've seen an example of an first order linear PDE without any solution and it blew my mind.
@StreuB1
@StreuB1 6 жыл бұрын
I have absolutely no idea what is going on here.......but its still badass!!!
@howmathematicianscreatemat9226
@howmathematicianscreatemat9226 5 жыл бұрын
thank you for applying this term to our science! It felt like coolness wouldn't want to go that far! It made our subject seem boring and dead.
@rolfschramek7060
@rolfschramek7060 7 ай бұрын
Great Video as always. Isn't there a problem defining the metric on X like this, because X is not a vector space, hence not a Banach space. Or maybe I'am misunderstanding something.
@danielescotece7144
@danielescotece7144 6 жыл бұрын
Your videos are helping me a lot with my analysis 2 exam! Thank you!
@bebarshossny5148
@bebarshossny5148 4 жыл бұрын
i wish you were my professor :,( i'm so glad we have your videos man
@SamSarwat90
@SamSarwat90 5 жыл бұрын
How can somebody dislike this....
@salvatoregiordano9050
@salvatoregiordano9050 4 жыл бұрын
Beautiful explanation! You are amazing. Thank you so much!
@parthasarker6121
@parthasarker6121 6 жыл бұрын
Is Lipschitz condition somehow related to the uniform dependence on initial conditions?
@drpeyam
@drpeyam 6 жыл бұрын
I don’t think so because the Lip condition depends on f, whereas the other one depends more on y0
@parthasarker6121
@parthasarker6121 6 жыл бұрын
@@drpeyam hey can you give me some resource to study about Lip condition?
@j.v6334
@j.v6334 3 жыл бұрын
Is there a theorem like this for higher order ODE?
@shumailaazam6
@shumailaazam6 4 жыл бұрын
can we use odes theories in nonlinear pdes? too?
@ey3796
@ey3796 3 жыл бұрын
For x,y belonging to U, mod(x-y) is euclidean distance between them? Since U itself belongs to R^m.Thanks 🙂.
@SylComplexDimensional
@SylComplexDimensional 6 жыл бұрын
CoolFIRE ODE Analysis!!
@Anders3000
@Anders3000 6 жыл бұрын
Great proof, thank you!!
@phuocbui3347
@phuocbui3347 5 жыл бұрын
The final example , i think F need to lipchitz around x0 =1 , because F(y(t)) with t around 0 is around y(0)=1,(F(y(0))= F(1)),but you say it lipchitz around 0 ,can you explain, thank you very much
@fonzi102
@fonzi102 3 жыл бұрын
very well explained, gj
@gregorymacchio4077
@gregorymacchio4077 4 жыл бұрын
Thank you!!!
@shiina_mahiru_9067
@shiina_mahiru_9067 6 жыл бұрын
You said we turn it into an integral equation because limit is easier to pass in . . . but . . . did we use any limit in the proof? 😂
@drpeyam
@drpeyam 6 жыл бұрын
Yeah, because the Banach Fixed Point Theorem involves limits 🙂
@danielescotece7144
@danielescotece7144 6 жыл бұрын
Peano and Cauchy, im studying them right now ahahhaha so cool, exactly like a minute ago
@Jaylooker
@Jaylooker 4 жыл бұрын
Nice
@AndDiracisHisProphet
@AndDiracisHisProphet 6 жыл бұрын
make it so!
@dgrandlapinblanc
@dgrandlapinblanc 6 жыл бұрын
Never in hollidays ? What's a crime ! Thank you very much...
@Debg91
@Debg91 6 жыл бұрын
Aahh that's hot!
@AxiomaticUncertainty
@AxiomaticUncertainty 6 жыл бұрын
First
@deeptochatterjee532
@deeptochatterjee532 6 жыл бұрын
Good for you buddy
@floribus5522
@floribus5522 7 ай бұрын
Great Video as always. Isn't there a problem defining the metric on X like this, because X is not a vector space, hence not a Banach space. Or maybe I'am misunderstanding something.
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