Ep. 64 | How to Study 1 Peter

What does 1 Peter 2:18 mean? Join the Chara Project team as they take CHARA into Action to understand what this verse is talking about.
Also, enjoy the Bible study guide with questions that go with this episode so you can study this passage alongside of us, or on your own. Available at www.thecharapr....
Tune in regularly as our team studies different Bible passages using the CHARA Bible Study Guide and unpacks new insights, tips and tricks they discover as they study the Bible.
The Chara Project is a community for anyone interested in learning how to explore and understand the Bible, no matter your faith background. We equip people to understand and study the Bible through Biblically based resources and teaching all anchored around our very own CHARA Bible Study Guide that provides a simple and helpful way to study the Bible that meets you at any stage of Bible study.
For more information about The Chara Project, including a free download of the CHARA Bible Study Guide, visit www.thecharaproject.com. To support The Chara Project, visit www.thecharapr...
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[@nickbrasing8786]

Boy this is a difficult and complicated subject. But I don't think I heard a specific answer to your question of "Does the Bible condone slavery"? It sounds like no? And Dan lays out the standard apologetics on this topic. All of which essentially say "yes, but...". And some of the "buts" you laid out here. And which, to me, simply either don't matter or are misleading or only part of the larger context. Like I understand the point of distinguishing between describing and prescribing. So no, the Bible doesn't command people to own slaves. Of course not. But neither did America. So....what is the point? Because the Bible actually does both. Yes, it describes that slavery was a fact in the ANE. But it also prescribes laws on the correct way to own slaves. That's just a fact. Laws straight from God. And that's prescribing. So the Bible does both, depending on which book and verses you're reading. And I've never really understood the point that it wasn't race based. Of course it wasn't. It couldn't be. Race is a modern concept, and it isn't like there were a bunch of Asian or Hispanic people walking around ancient Jerusalem. Probably not many blacks either for that matter. But it WAS based on the ancient equivalent of race. Tribalism, or nation based. You could own slaves, they just couldn't be from your own tribe or nation. And in this the Bible is no different than other nations laws at the time. And as to these people being more like servants? Here you need to really get into the Hebrew. And yes, many times the Hebrew word, in context, means "servant" or even "worker". But sometimes it also does means slave. Correctly translated as "slave". And it's these instances that should be the subject of a discussion on slavery in the Bible. One of the things Dan does is talk about the rules related to debt servitude where the person has to be released after 6 years and provided for liberally when they leave. You mentioned this too. But this only applied to Israelites. Foreigners were never released. Something you didn't mention? And it was only for foreigners that the Bible condones lifelong, generational chattel slavery. There's just no getting around it. And that is something that I did not expect the Bible to do.

[@Irvingdector]

WTH!!!!!!!!!!