"Food" (βρῶμα) in Jewish Greek: Torah, Prophets, Gospels, and Romans

[@tannermcginn7330]

Thank you, Rob! This is a great companion video to Messiah Matters #477!

[@mariajacobson2804]

Thank you Rob! 🙏☝

[@DavidWilberBlog]

Good stuff, Rob. Shalom!

[@RooshkyBear]

Right on Rob!

[@marysmiledge]

Keep fighting the good fight!!!

[@user-uo7fw5bo1o]

Your thumbnail shows a Greek DSS with the words properly spaced out! Ancient Christian MSS on the other half have everything runnin like a continuous stream of letters. What a happy sight to see the Jews were smarter with their scriptures! 😊

[@ontherock]

Not all ancient Christian manuscripts are that way. Ancient Bible manuscripts which have no spacing between words occur in Hebrew as well as in Greek... in these instances the texts were not made for readers, but for reciters (people who already knew the text by heart). What's written is more like a piece of sheet music for a performer who has already memorized the music and has practiced it and knows it inside and out. The document is something for their eye to follow as a mnemonic device, but it's not at all as if they're reading or encountering the text for the first time. They already know it, the written text is an aid to their memory, not the other way around. So it's not a Jew vs Roman or vs Christian, etc... kind of thing.

[@BansheeHives]

Do you think it's interesting that in Gen 6:21 and Lev 11:34 it basically says: "Food that could be eaten"? I.e., "Stuff that is eaten, that could be eaten"?

[@ontherock]

Yes this is an excellent point, probably deserving it's own thorough treatment. We also read (Lev. 11:47) "...to make a distinction between the unclean and the clean, and between the edible creature and the creature which is not to be eaten." The Hebrew here contrasts החיה הנאכלת "the living thing which is eaten (may be eaten)" from החיה אשר לא תאכל "the living thing which is not eaten (may not be eaten)." Similar to Gen 6:21 and Lev 11:34, but the word אכל "food" is not used. A parallel phrase is found in Jeremiah 24 regarding figs "which are not eaten" (because they're rotten). So does the phrase אשר יאכל serve to qualify from a larger set of "food"? Or is "food which will be eaten" simply an idiom? My opinion is that it's similar to "he vowed a vow," "they sang a song," "he sacrificed a sacrifice," etc... which we see throughout the Bible (these are called cognate accusatives). On one level we think "oh of course that makes sense," but on another level you might think it's redundant. My view is that "food which will be eaten" is similar to this. It's an idiom.

[@user-uo7fw5bo1o]

​@@ontherock So Leviticus 11 is differentiating between edible and inedible flesh of living creatures?

[@ontherock]

@@user-uo7fw5bo1o Yes

[@jasonsuire7468]

I'm not a %100 percent convinced, even with that being said I appreciate the knowledge shared and have turned away from pork and shellfish in an attempt to be healthier because regardless of what I believe is acceptable I acknowledge a better way and that way is the one you are teaching. Shalom Shalom and as always I'm grateful for the knowledge our Lord has given you that has been freely shared.

[@ontherock]

Hi Jason, regarding Mark 7:19, what do you make of the difference between the KJV and all the newer translations?

[@jasonsuire7468]

@@ontherock I understand where you're going with that and I appreciate you engaging and sharpening me but please help me understand how your interpretation would align with the very next verse? I am not in disagreement with you but rather seeking to fully understand. Thank you, Shalom Shalom!

[@jasonsuire7468]

At the end of the day Rob I want to do the things that always please my Father in Heaven.

[@ontherock]

@@jasonsuire7468 The next verses are Mark 7:20-23 (NASB): And he said, “What comes out of a person is what defiles him. For from within, out of the heart of man, come evil thoughts, sexual immorality, theft, murder, adultery, coveting, wickedness, deceit, sensuality, envy, slander, pride, foolishness. All these evil things come from within, and they defile a person.” He could have added numerous items to this list (see Galatians 5:19-21 for example). The point is that all sin comes from the heart. Rebellion against God comes from the heart. That's why Jesus is using hyperbole when He says, "If you hand causes you to sin, cut it off! If your eye causes you to sin, pluck it out!" This forces His listeners to ask themselves, "Where, at the end of the day, does sin come from? My hand? My eye? Or does it come from my heart?" The one who lusts after a woman has already committed adultery in his heart. The heart is the problem. Nothing "outside" a person is the source of his sin problem. We cannot blame anything outside ourselves for our sin.

[@jasonsuire7468]

@@ontherock I get it, so basically you're saying a wicked heart would cause one to defile himself by eating something unclean. Thanks for the clarification. As I said before I've been led to be healthier as well as having a desire to be more like the ancient Hebrews.

[@BansheeHives]

What about Ps 69:21 and 79:2 using _broma_ for non-kosher animals.

[@ontherock]

Can you clarify your question? My initial response would be that: First, this is poetry and parallelism. Second, neither verse refers to animals. Third, it's a translation, so an investigation of the Hebrew would be the first step.

[@BansheeHives]

One could argue that _broma_ at times means non-kosher foods, so Paul saying all _broma_ is clean includes non-kosher foods. They could point to Ps 69:21 and 79:2 to prove that it includes non-kosher food.

[@ontherock]

@@BansheeHives Go ahead and try to argue that point as best you can.

[@SaultBirder777]

Rob, I have always wondered when does Yeshua stain (dip) His vesture in blood "before" He returns to earth with His armies in Revelation 19:13-14. I believe He is always described as wearing a pure white robe/raiment, post crucifixion and prior to Revelation 19 in the New Testament. In Isaiah 63:1-8 we read that He treads the wine-press "alone" and stains His raiment with blood to redeem His people (Israel - is this when they "SEE" and finally accept the true Messiah). Is this "when" His pure white garments get stained for the first time?...if so then when does He come to earth to do this (to treadeth the wine-press alone - Isaiah 63), prior to Him coming to earth from Heaven with His armies (Revelation19:11-12).? In Daniel 7:13-14 we read that one like the Son of man (Yeshua) came with the clouds of Heaven "to" the Ancient of Days just prior to Him receiving His dominion, glory and kingdom (and many crowns). So...He is heading towards Abba Father (Ancient of Days) on/in the clouds of Heaven...so where is He coming from?...earth? Lets remember, He had not yet received His crown of many crowns until that moment...and yet in Revelation 19 when He comes to earth on a horse, with a vesture dipped in blood and with His armies, He is already wearing His many crowns (crown Him with many crowns). So...to me...the events in Daniel 7:13-14 have to occur prior to Revelation 19:11-12. Which leads me to think that when He comes to the Ancient of Days with the clouds (Daniel 7:13)...that this is right after He goes to earth to tread the wine-press alone for vengeance and redemption (Isaiah 63:3-4) and then returns back to Heaven alone to receive His Glory (Daniel 7)...prior to Revelation 19:11-->>and possibly all of Revelation 19. I am not sure why I am so driven to seek clarity on this...but I am...and to date, no one I have reached out to seems to see what I see in the scriptures regarding this...what do you see?...it all seems to pivot around the time at which Yeshua Hamaschiach receives His Kingdom and many crowns. I believe Edom (which means red - Hebrew origin) is where the descendants of Esau (who was born with red skin Gen 25:25 and who requested red pottage Gen 25:30) settled (Bozrah region) which is a southern part of modern day Jordan between the Dead and Red seas. This is where Yeshua seeks redemption and stains His raiment red...alone (Isaiah 63). I look forward to your Holy Spirit led insights/understanding of this. Shalom

[@ontherock]

I don't have an answer for you. However, in my view it's not impossible that Edom here in Isa 63 is a symbol of Jerusalem high priesthood and religious leadership in the Second Temple era (per Malachi, Jacob was behaving just like Esau, and the prophecy of Elijah/John the Baptist), and a popular claim of the Herodians was that they were a Jewish-Idumean mix. One of the Maccabean kings had expanded into the territory of Idumea and force-circumcised all the males to make them "Jews" and to extract taxes from them. But again, I don't know. Shalom

[@rogerbeaird3320]

Pauls letters are not scriptures yeshua was and is a pharase pauk taught a different gospel also ..he wasnt one of the desiples and yet he wrote a whole another testament from his experience with no ither books to back him up and he never consulted with anyone sbout it eith i say no he takes us away from the kaw of Moses 🔯