John 1 Greek Exegesis with Rev. Dr Brian Rosner

Rev. Dr Brian Rosner, Principal of Ridley College, demonstrates in this video how he would exegete and translate the beginning prologue in John's gospel and the issues that arises in translation.
For more information go to www.ridley.edu.au

[@chrisg.k487]

Εύγε κε Καθηγητά. Είστε Λακωνικός, περιεκτικός και πλήρως διαφωτιστικος.

[@michelleweatherspoon8087]

Thank you for making this lesson. It is very helpful to me.

[@tabasco7915]

Have you done anything like this with Jhn 20:28?

[@theupperlanai9557]

Wished you could read all of it at the beginning in Greek just to hear the pronunciation. But still helpful thank you

[@MarkNLeeES]

Thanks!

[@supersmart671]

Brilliant

[@GreekOrthodox7]

No.

[@SichanguOyate]

Praying for all unbelievers and του Αντίχριστου. May you find the truth of Our Savior Γιαχ-οσούα.

[@issith7340]

Αλλαχ αλλαχ και τρις αλλαχ.

[@sabtuchannel9590]

Amen

[@issith7340]

Just a fashionable text of a moderately educated person of that period , to express what he wanted to say in greek language. This is how this text sounds to a mother tongue, greek speaking person if today. All the words are widely in use today in modern greek, as they appear here

[@dieandereseite3197]

Why in all Videos i watch to this topic, no one argues about the definite article in Front of the first appearence of the word god? Doesn't it has to be translated " and the word was with/towards THE god?

[@tongakhan230]

That is because those who want to believe that Jesus was God need to ignore what goes against their belief. Logically, no one can be WITH his wife and he be his own wife. But Trinitarians have no use for logic.

[@jeffreypaulross9767]

@@tongakhan230STRAW MAN ALERT‼️”No one can be WITH his wife and he be his own wife.” It’s clear that you have zero understanding of the doctrine of the Trinity. The husband and wife together are considered one flesh. Also, they are both human beings, so they share that in common. In a similar fashion, God the Father and God the Son, share the same nature and essence. Both are divine! Learn what the doctrine of the Holy Trinity really teaches, before you try to shoot it down!

[@tongakhan230]

@@jeffreypaulross9767 : A person who is WITH his wife will also be his wife. That is what those who want to make Jesus into God using John 1:1 do. A husband CANNOT be his wife although they work together as ONE UNIT. Jesus and his God Jehovah CANNOT be one and the same individual just because they work together in unity. (John 17:22) I have given them the glory that you have given me, in order that they may be one JUST AS we are one. THEM, THEY = ALL Jesus' disciples. WE = Jesus and God. What is Jesus comparing in his statement? That ALL his disciples be one individual? Or that they are united in thought and purpose JUST AS he and God were? Read 1 Corinthians 1:10.

[@jeffreypaulross9767]

@@tongakhan230 See, that’s what you don’t understand about the Trinity! We have never said that Jesus and the Father are the same individual. That’s not the doctrine of the Holy Trinity. Hear o Israel, the Lord thy God is one. (DEUTERONOMY 6:4) We got that! We believe that the Father is referred to as God, throughout scripture. (1CORINTHIANS 8:6) We got that too! We believe that Jesus is referred to as God in many Bible verses, but yet we still believe that there is only one God! How can that be? We also believe that the Holy Spirit is also referred to as God. So now, there are three persons in the Bible that are referred to as God, but yet THERE IS ONLY ONE GOD! Now here is where the doctrine of the Holy Trinity comes in. We believe that the one God (singular) is defined in three separate persons. Not three separate Gods like everybody who isn’t a knowledgeable Trinitarian tries to define it as. So, that one God, or Godhead, consists of three separate persons. The Father, The Son, and The Holy Spirit, And they’re all called God. I’ve heard non Trinitarians say something like 1+1+1=3 doesn’t it? Nope, that’s not it! If you gotta use math to explain the Trinity, try 1x1x1=1

[@andrewsmith3344]

In the Tyndale translation he translates the word as "it" not "his" or "him". Who has the correct original Greek??/

[@Thedisciplemike]

Same thing with the Geneva bible. The term "him" is an eisegesis. One would have pre supposed that the word is a "him", though linguistically it's obviously an "it". Never before in the other gospels and letters is the word "word" used as a title for Jesus. Check out 1John 1:1, and you'll notice very similar language. As well as John 6:60

[@BiblicalText]

This word is sometimes translated as "it" and sometimes "his/him". The general context of how the word is used will dictate how best the word is translated. When translating between one language and another language, it is not necessary to attempt to seek to find a one to one mapping for every Greek word. No language can be translated accurately by attempting to force a one to one mapping. The term for this phenomenon is called 'semantic range'. For example, "Thats cool" could mean "thats cold" or "thats awesome" depending on the context.

[@Thedisciplemike]

@@BiblicalText exactly. Unfortunately, there are still plenty of pre supposed concepts that come into play when reading verses, especially in John 1.

[@andrewsmith3344]

@@BiblicalText well that's what's wrong with translation. In the beginning was the word. Now everyone who translates this as Jesus are wrong, the word is "Gods power",and therefore "it".

[@BiblicalText]

Just to make sure I understand you correctly, you are talking specifically about how to translate "Οὗτος ἦν ἐν ἀρχῇ πρὸς τὸν θεόν." ? And you are flagging a question with regards to what the word Οὗτος refers to? Or are you questioning the translation of the phrase "πάντα δἰ αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο" and specifically what the word αὐτοῦ refers to?

[@issith7340]

Literally: “in beginning was the word( word/reason) and the word(word/reason) was toward god and god was the word ( word/reason), who was in beginning towards the god, everything through himwas made, and without himwas made, nothing…… “ from a simple greek speaking person from Greece. I didn’t check at all if my translation is close to yours. But I tried to translate literally what i see. The main thing here is that logos means both :word and reason, in this sentence inclined towards reason mainly.

[@MichaelTheophilus906]

God's plan and purpose. Do you believe that Him is the correct translation in 2,3,and 4, or should it be "it" rather than Him referring to the Logos?

[@issith7340]

@@MichaelTheophilus906 λογος( word for you), in greek refers to something that was never supposed to be a divine entity itself. Logos , just means: word ir reason. In greek language though, it’s a masculine noun (him), not a neutral (it) one. Given that in English language, there are 3 genders fir nouns ( like in greek), i would translated as: him. But without meaning that im giving a devine property to the word ( logos), necessarily, cause the original Greek text does not gives either.

[@philipbuckley759]

in the Simplified English text, it is message, and in the Spanish language version the term is Verb....

[@randomperson1408]

Εν αρχη ο λογος, και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον, και θεος ην ο λογος. Ουτος ην εν αρχαη προς τον θεον. Παντα δι αυτου εγενετο, και χωρις αυτου εγενετο ουδε εν ο γεγονεν. Εν αυτω ζοη ην και η ζωη ην το φως των ανθρωπων, και το φως εν τη σκοτια φαινει και η σκοτια αυτο ου κατελαβεν

[@makarov138]

An example of the Greek (2316) θεὸς “God” in the predicate nomitive case, and without the article, as being capitalized. This is the Unitarians and JWs excuse for translating JN 1:1C as “The Logos was a god.” Mark 12:27 refutes that. ASV “He is not [the] God of the dead, but of the living: ye do greatly err.” Interlinear: “not He is God of [the] dead but” The article “the” is not there preceding the noun θεὸς in the Greek text. And yet the context demands the capitalization of “God.” And so it does in JN 1:1C Using this example, Jn 1:1C could just as legally, by biblical Greek example, be translated: “The Logos was the God.” and be just as correct. Thank you for an excellent lesson in Greek!

[@MurmilloTV1]

I don't understand how he calls nouns which do not need an article!?

[@issith7340]

They don’t need an article in English. But they need in Greek , in which the bible , was originally written . Need article in many other languages as well.

[@thepreacherxi5353]

Hi sir. Can I ask how to say/write "The Word has a beginning" in Greek? Thanks! God bless!

[@brennanmaynard4237]

Ὁ λόγος ἔχει ἀρχῆ. Although, this is, from a theological standpoint, rather heretical...

[@aaronschmidt8631]

@@brennanmaynard4237 small correction. άρχη needs to be in accusative (αρχην) and I would put the verb in the end (it's a more common word order in Greek)

[@GreekOrthodox7]

You must learn Greek from Greeks only. Stop listening to non-Greeks teach our language. For any other language do you do this? Would you listen to a British person teach you Chinese?

[@issith7340]

The word (word/reason) has a beginning- ο λόγος έχει μία αρχή- Ο ΛΟΓΟΣ ΕΧΕΙ ΜΙΑ ΑΡΧΗ.( o lógos èhi mía arhí).

[@issith7340]

@@aaronschmidt8631 no we don’t put the verb at the end of sentences. Very rarely and same happened with our ancestors’s sentences.

[@ElCineHefe]

The repetitions are indicative of the parallelism, bracketing the ellipsis. "And [with] God was the Word" is the only rendering that conforms to the structure of the grammar. Verse 1:2 belongs to 1:1, despite the latter day verse enumeration.

[@issith7340]

The repetition of words was a fashion of that time in greek scripture. To look and sound more nicely.

[@scripturial]

I have always found it interesting how the article is not used at the start. However we understand the time period of ἀρχηῇ, we know the word was there. I love the chaiasm in this text. It is interesting that the imperfectivity of ἦν is pointed out here. The fact that there is no pure aorist of ἧν makes me wonder if we should take care to read too much into verbal aspect here. Although ultimately, perhaps the reason there is no aorist of ἦν is because the perfective form is filled with the perfect tense-form.

[@rodveljumantoc6838]

In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was same with God.

[@philipbuckley759]

where do you get....was same, with.....in the Greek text...

[@daviddeppisch4948]

And the word WAS God. Seems to me that John 1 is clear about the Divinity of Christ throughout 1 thru 14@@philipbuckley759

[@AstariahFox]

​@@daviddeppisch4948more like word was a divine being John isn't confused on who jesus is He wrote st john 20:31 that his whole gospel is written to bieleve jesus is the christ the son of God

[@swamprat22]

@@AstariahFox john clearly believed that jesus was god, all of them did

[@AstariahFox]

@@swamprat22 no john didn't believe that or else he wouldn't write no man has seen God at anytime Plus in john 20:31 he sums it up by saying this been written down so you may believe jesus is the christ the son of God

[@MichaelTheophilus906]

Deut 6.4-6, Mark 12.28-32, John 17.3, John 20.17, Rom 15.6, Rom 16.27, I Cor 8.6, II Cor 11.31, I Tim 2.5, Rev 3.2, Rev 3.12, and many other scriptures.

[@Media_Inc]

This is talking of the new creation God through Yeshua who represents the word which had light/life in it and this is shadowing the old testament creation how God created by the speech.

[@user-yf3jt1hy3t]

I don't agree with the translation "and the word was God" . The lack of the article makes it: "and the word was A god"...! (was "divine")

[@david2358]

this is a biased video. He simply translated logos as "Jesus" though it can also mean "something said; by implication, a topic, also reasoning or motive" and verse 2 he translated it as "he" though it could also mean "it".

[@Thedisciplemike]

Amen brother

[@christsavesreadromans1096]

You’re a very dishonest person, if you actually read the Bible and had respect for Jesus you’d recognize that the same logos (or Word) is described in John 1:14 as becoming flesh and dwelling among us. That describes Jesus, not just “something said by implication, a topic, reasoning, or motive”

[@ed-jf3xh]

It actually says, 'and God was the Word'.

[@photovlog4495]

but we need to follow the Greek Grammar on the function of an article and nominative predicate

[@ed-jf3xh]

@@photovlog4495 I'm no expert to be sure, it just looks like it's used both ways in the same sentence. Doesn't really change the intent though so....

[@joakimrantanen3401]

@@ed-jf3xh I am curious, if you do not know koine greek, then how do you draw the conclusions that "it actually says, "and God was the Word"? The greek language does not function like the english language in the sence that word order has grammatical meaning. That means καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος and καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν θεὸς are do not have any difference in meaning whatsoever. The article before λόγος (but not before θεὸς) reveals that it is the subject of the sentence. It is a similiar construct to John 4.24: "πνεῦμα ὁ θεός". It is never translated "spirit is the God", but always "God is spirit" - the article (absent in the english translation) does not indicate "_the_ God", but that θεός is the subject in the sentence. I understand that it "looks like" something else when used to the english sentence structure where the first noun always is the subject. However, greek grammar should be utilized when reading greek. I hope that explains it :-)

[@ed-jf3xh]

@@joakimrantanen3401 I base this on that the only difference I can see, between to two parts of the sentence, is the addition of PROS in the first part. Word was 'with' God and God was the Word. In both cases, subject/object order seems to be the same. In English, switching the order of the nouns doesn't really affect the meaning. The words may be Greek, but the thought is Hebrew. Switching the noun position between the two parts of the sentence confirm the unity of God the Father and God the Son. Deuteronomy 6:4 supports this idea when it states the unity of the plural Elohiym. Try translating it to Spanish instead of English.

[@tongakhan230]

Tweaking around with the Greek in John 1:1:to override what the rest of the scriptures say is for what reason? Jesus was WITH God as any Firstborn would be lohically with his parents before the others came along.

[@takirid]

The beginning: In the Scriptures, the meaning of the term “beginning” depends on the context. Here the Greek word ar·kheʹ cannot refer to “the beginning” of God the Creator, for he is eternal, having no beginning. (Ps 90:2) It must, therefore, refer to the time when God began creating. God’s first creation was termed the Word, a heavenly designation of the one who became Jesus. (Joh 1:14-17) So Jesus is the only one who can rightly be called “the firstborn of all creation.” (Col 1:15) He was “the beginning of the creation by God”(Re 3:14), so he existed before other spirit creatures and the physical universe were created. In fact, by means of Jesus, “all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth.”​-Col 1:16;

[@AstariahFox]

Hey brother or sister

[@tongakhan230]

True and simple to those who want to see. The term BEGINNING cannot refer to God. Time only begins after God has created someone or something. Any FIRSTBORN would be WITH his father before the others come along. Jesus was WITH God when time began. 'In the BEGINNING the Word was' 'and the Word was WITH God' - John 1:1

[@smalltimer4370]

The first τὸν θεόν, is not "theos", as he stated, but more accurately, ton theon - in other words; the God

[@smalltimer4370]

@@gustavmahler1466 Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς *τὸν θεόν* καὶ *θεὸς* ἦν ὁ λόγος - [Textus Receptus 1550] _En archē ēn ho Logos kai ho Logos ēn pros _*_ton Theon_*_ kai _*_Theos_*_ ēn ho Logos_ - [Interlinear] 𝙸𝚗 𝚋𝚎𝚐𝚒𝚗𝚗𝚒𝚗𝚐 𝚠𝚊𝚜 𝚝𝚑𝚎 𝚆𝚘𝚛𝚍 𝚊𝚗𝚍 𝚝𝚑𝚎 𝚆𝚘𝚛𝚍 𝚠𝚊𝚜 𝚠𝚒𝚝𝚑 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐆𝐨𝐝 𝚊𝚗𝚍 𝚝𝚑𝚎 𝚆𝚘𝚛𝚍 𝚠𝚊𝚜 𝐆𝐨𝐝 - [English] (1) *ton Theon* = the God (2) *Theos* = God, or a God The first title [ton Theon], is identified as GOD the Father, GOD Almighty, etc. Whereas the second title [Theos], lends itself to various concepts such as; divine power and/or authority - the Greek lexicon references [theos] in the following ways; divinely (1), God (1267), god (6), God's (27), God-fearing (1), godly (2), *godly* (1), gods (8), Lord (1) With that said, [the word] in John 1.1, is not intended as a substitute [the God], as the phrase structure does not support such a view, but moreso, where [the word] is presented in reference to the GOD identified in the opening of the text, which works in perfect conjunction with the following text; 𝟼𝙱𝚢 𝚈𝚊𝚑𝚠𝚎𝚑'𝚜 𝚠𝚘𝚛𝚍, 𝚝𝚑𝚎 𝚑𝚎𝚊𝚟𝚎𝚗𝚜 𝚠𝚎𝚛𝚎 𝚖𝚊𝚍𝚎; 𝚊𝚕𝚕 𝚝𝚑𝚎𝚒𝚛 𝚊𝚛𝚖𝚢 𝚋𝚢 𝚝𝚑𝚎 𝚋𝚛𝚎𝚊𝚝𝚑 𝚘𝚏 𝚑𝚒𝚜 𝚖𝚘𝚞𝚝𝚑... ...𝟿𝙵𝚘𝚛 𝚑𝚎 𝚜𝚙𝚘𝚔𝚎, 𝚊𝚗𝚍 𝚒𝚝 𝚠𝚊𝚜 𝚍𝚘𝚗𝚎. 𝙷𝚎 𝚌𝚘𝚖𝚖𝚊𝚗𝚍𝚎𝚍, 𝚊𝚗𝚍 𝚒𝚝 𝚜𝚝𝚘𝚘𝚍 𝚏𝚒𝚛𝚖. - 𝙿𝚜𝚊𝚕𝚖 𝟹𝟹.𝟼-𝟿 Therefore and as can be seen here, the Bible reveals that the word of GOD, which came from GOD(His mouth), carried out His will in creation. Whereas John 1.1, relates to the personification of said word, carried out through the Son.

[@leejames6800]

@@smalltimer4370 Is there a Bible you could recommend that has what you identify as the interlinear translation? I just yesterday ordered the Tyndale New Greek/Interlinear New Testament. However, from what I can tell, it has the original greek (UBS/Nestle-Aland) and the NIV English translation in the same Bible. I've never studied greek before and what you show as an example of interlinear would be vastly helpful to learn how to pronounce the greek words.

[@charleskurniawan2950]

Does Logos really literally mean 'word' not 'reason or logic'?

[@brennanmaynard4237]

@Smalltimer He read “theós” because theós is the subject form of the word for God; Greek has different endings of words based on their functions in a sentence. Theón is the object form of the subject version Theos. Theós = Theón = Theôj = Theoû

[@smalltimer4370]

@@charleskurniawan2950 In this particular case, the term 'logos', means a literal word, as seen in Psalm 33.6-9 With that said the Bible makes use of personifications with GOD's attributes and in this case, His will and commandment brought to life

[@user-wo3cj9bk4u]

The corect is ερμηνεία not εξήγησις.With love from Thessaloniki Greece Europe.

[@user-vs8vf1ij9x]

The word "logos" has different of meanings, in this situation is better to translate like (reason, cause, relation) and not as (word)

[@MrJovan1974]

Forget about Greek and Hebrew. Now, we have different translations of Bible in English having bias accordingly. Reading all the translations of John 1:1, one thing is common.i.e., "In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God." And, henceforth, Jesus was God. Using reasoning power, people, think this way - if Jesus is God (as 95% Christians believe), does Jesus had a beginning? Will not that be absurd to say that God had a beginning? For one thing, Bible says, God is of eternity, God does not have beginning nor end. Moreover, this interpretation made by men that "Jesus is God" is in spite of Jesus repeatedly saying that "He is the son of God." It is okay to go to Bible college, studying theology for years .... but all is needed is an honest heart and thirst to know about God and using God-given reasoning power. How easy for the babes that they grasp quickly and easily. How easy is for the poor to know God and known by God. It is like that poor women who gave 2 copper coins.

[@saralakatos1360]

True words 💯💪

[@Jere616]

If you beget a son, he is of the same class of being you are - human. Since Jesus said he is God's Son, it means he is of the same class of being that God is - eternal Deity. The Pharisees rightly understood Jesus was making that claim about himself, that he was equal with God. See John 5:17-18.

[@Thedisciplemike]

@@Jere616 so you are going to side with the Pharisees. Interesting. Also interesting how Adam, David, and Solomon are also called Sons of God, and that WE as believers are called Sons of God.... Yet they and we are not God Himself. You won't apply that logic to Jesus though, because to you, he is God. If you worship Jesus as the Almighty God, you're worshipping an idol

[@Jere616]

@@Thedisciplemike The Pharisees took Jesus's statement of calling God his personal Father as a capital crime, i.e., a blasphemy because it meant he claimed to be of the same nature as the Father. Your position would actually be siding with the Pharisees since you say it's idolatry to worship Jesus as Deity. As to Adam, etc. being called sons of God, Jesus is the *only* begotten Son of God, meaning Jesus is also eternal Deity. No one else has that kind of sonship.

[@Thedisciplemike]

@@Jere616 "it meant he claimed to be the same nature as the father". No lol. No it didn't. You are reading that into the text. Nowhere does it say that. They took it as blasphemy because they knew what it meant, that he was claiming to be Messiah, God's chosen King, God's representative on earth

[@charlessmith833]

And god was the word.... You purposely read it backwards to prevent reading it correctly as " a god was the word". See John 4:24 " God is a spirit". Literally in Greek it reads "Spirit is God". Which means "a spirit is God". The grammar is exactly the same. You trinitarians never give up.

[@anglicanaesthetics]

No, he’s reading this correctly. Granville Sharp’s rule-usually, the noun with the article is the subject whereas the noun after the “to be” verb is the predicate. It’s predicating of the Word “God”; it reverses the word order likely for emphasis.

[@jeremiahrowesr.3130]

No Charles he’s not reading it wrong the actual Greek says and verifies with nominative prerogatives as he is giving here, the article is not in front of Theos but it is in front of Theos in the second line. So no Jesus is not a God he is the true and living God. Jesus himself claims to be the Almighty God, your New World translation claims that Jesus Christ is God Almighty. Jesus himself said that he shares the exact same essence in nature with the father he is equal to the father. So no John chapter 1 verse one in the Greek is being written correctly it is absolutely correct to say that it’s wrong it’s because you don’t agree with it and the reason why you don’t agree with it is because you think Christ Jesus himself is a liar and on that fact, that he was right that he is God if Jesus is not God then your sins are not forgiven that simple. John chapter 4 verse 24 says that God is a spirit he is an eternal spirit also if you go into your New World translation the New World translation which is the Jehovah’s Witness Bible says and second Corinthians chapter 3 verse 12 and 18 that the Holy Spirit is Jehovah God as well. If you look in the New Testament Jehovah God is worshiped right so is Jesus several times and here is scripture to verify this.

[@jeremiahrowesr.3130]

Charles smith NAMES OF JESUS - ALMIGHTY GOD In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. 4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men. John 1:1-4 KJV Jesus Christ is not just a man. Even when He walked on the earth, He was not merely a man. In the New Testament, He was referred to 88 times as the Son of Man and 47 times as the Son of God. He was God in the form of man - God clothed in human flesh - born of a virgin, conceived by the Holy Spirit. Most people just see the Man, Jesus - but He existed long before He was born into the earth as a baby in Bethlehem. He always was with God; He Himself IS God. He was there when all things were made and all things were made by Him; nothing was made without Him. In Revelation 1:8 AMP He says, “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End, says the Lord God, He Who is and Who was and Who is to come, the Almighty (the Ruler of all).” Jesus has no beginning and He has no end. He is Lord and Ruler over heaven and earth, time, space and matter. For to us a Child is born, to us a Son is given; and the government shall be upon His shoulder, and His name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father [of Eternity], Prince of Peace. Isaiah 9:6 AMP Which [appearing] will be shown forth in His own proper time by the blessed, only Sovereign (Ruler), the King of kings and the Lord of lords. 1 Timothy 6:15 AMP His birth, life, death and resurrection were prophesied and foretold over and over in the Old Testament - that He would be born a child, and yet still be God and Supreme Ruler. There was an appointed time for Him to come forth. When He walked on this earth, even though His coming was prophesied, no one really truly knew who He was or understood what He came to do. Now, after the fact, we celebrate who He is and what He has done for us! We see that He is not just a man, but He is truly Almighty God! For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily; 10 and you are complete in Him, who is the head of all principality and power. Colossians 2:9-10 NKJV Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: 7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: 8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. Philippians 2:5-8 KJV But to those who are called, whether Jew or Greek (Gentile), Christ [is] the Power of God and the Wisdom of God. 1 Corinthians 1:24 AMP Even though Jesus is God, He humbled Himself to come down to the earth to be born a man and to die on the cross on our behalf. In Him dwells the fullness of God in the body of a man! In Him is the Power of God and the Wisdom of God; He is the head of all principalities and powers. With Him and in Him, we are perfectly complete. We need nothing more than Him. And they sing the song of Moses the servant of God, and the song of the Lamb, saying, Great and marvellous are thy works, Lord God Almighty; just and true are thy ways, thou King of saints. Revelation 15:3 KJV They will wage war against the Lamb, and the Lamb will triumph over them; for He is Lord of lords and King of kings - and those with Him and on His side are chosen and called [elected] and loyal and faithful followers. Revelation 17:14 AMP And on His garment (robe) and on His thigh He has a name (title) inscribed, King Of Kings And Lord Of Lords. Revelation 19:16 AMP There is no one mightier than He. He is the King of all kings and the Lord of all lords - Almighty God! Jesus "did not cease to be God when He became man," and "that Christ and the Father are one," which are true statements about the deity of God. It is also true that the Father is the Lord God Almighty, but it is a false statement to say, "that Jesus is not the Lord God Almighty." Why would God give Ellen a false statement about himself? The truth is that God did not reveal this, as God does not lie. The answer simply is this, Ellen G. White is a false prophet. What does Almighty mean, and does the definition apply to Christ? From the Greek Almighty means, 3841. pantokrator, pan-tok-rat'-ore; from G3956 and G2904; the all-ruling, i.e. God (as absolute and universal sovereign): -- Almighty, Omnipotent. Strong's Dictionary We then can say yes, this definition describes Christ as all-ruling, Almighty and Omnipotent. Does the Bible tell us that Christ to be called the Mighty God? Yes. (Isaiah 9:6 NIV) "For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on His shoulders. And He will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace. Isaiah tells us that Jesus is to be called the Mighty God. God in Hebrew means, 410. 'el, ale; short. from H352; strength; as adj. mighty; espec. the Almighty deity, power, strong. Comp. names in "-el." Strong's Dictionary This definition describes Jesus. We find the definition Almighty, meaning Omnipotent, and God, as meaning Almighty deity. On this evidence alone Jesus can be called Almighty God. Does Jesus call himself the Lord God Almighty? Yes Revelation 1:7 (NIV) "Look, He is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him, even those who pierced him; and all the peoples of the earth will mourn because of him. So shall it be! Amen." (Revelation 1:8 NIV) ""I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, "who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty." Who is coming in the clouds? Verse 7, the one who was pierced. Jesus. What is His name? Verse 8, the Alpha and the Omega, the Lord God, the Almighty. (Revelation 22:12 NIV) "Behold, I am coming soon! My reward is with me, and I will give to everyone according to what he has done." (Revelation 22:13 NIV) "I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End." Who gives rewards at His soon coming? Verses 12, 13, the Alpha and the Omega. (Matthew 16:27 NIV) "For the Son of Man is going to come in His Father's glory with His angels, and then He will reward each person according to what he has done." Who is the Son of man that is coming in His Father's glory? Verse 27, it is The Son of Man, (Jesus). Compare with the Alpha and the Omega, the Lord God Almighty that is coming and was pierced, in Revelation 1: 7,8. (Revelation 22:20 NIV) "He who testifies to these things says, 'Yes, I am coming soon.' Amen. Come, Lord Jesus." Who is coming soon? the Lord Jesus. Compare Revelation 22: 12,13 as the Alpha and Omega. Does It Make a Difference? Because of the authority given Ellen G. White by the Seventh-day Adventist Church, many that read her statement that "the man Christ Jesus was not the Lord God Almighty" will regard it as truth. What does this false statement do to the deity of Christ? It says that the Father and Son are not really equal in their deity and that the Father is the Lord God Almighty and Christ is somewhat of a lesser God. This is very similar to the beliefs of the Jehovah's Witnesses who believe that Jesus Christ is not God equal to the Father, and regard Him as just "a god " (with a small g). This is found in their New World Translation of John 1:1.The Wittiness also believe that Jesus is a mighty god and Jehovah is the Lord God Almighty. This gives Ellen G. White, the SDA Church and the Jehovah's Witness two Gods, one that is Almighty and one that is not as Almighty. The Truth Jesus Christ is called the Lord God Almighty, and the Alpha and Omega, Revelation 1:8, the same as the Father is called the Lord God Almighty and the Alpha and Omega. (Revelation 21:5-6) Almighty applies to Christ, from the Greek word "pantokrator," which means all-ruling, Almighty, Omnipotent. The Savior is equal to the Father, (Colossians 2:9 NIV) "For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form," God bless you as you lift up Jesus to His full deity as the Lord God Almighty.

[@jeremiahrowesr.3130]

, So if you had read the old testament Charles which I don’t believe you have if you had read it then you would see in the Old Testament that Jesus is eternal Aliti is spoken of the messiah is eternal he has an eternal dominion and I will show this to you that verifies this. The Eternality and Pre-Existence of Christ Eternality The subject of Christ’s eternality deals with the fact that He has always existed as a person from eternity past, with no beginning and no end. The Scriptures give at least three lines of evidence for this fact: direct biblical statements, the deity of Christ, and His role in creation. Direct Biblical Statements Four biblical passages clearly ascribe eternality to Christ. The first, Micah 5:2, declared that Judah’s future deliverer, who would rule in Israel on God’s behalf, would be born in the small town of Bethlehem. Because humanity is born, but deity is not, this part of the declaration revealed that the Messiah would be a human being. The next part asserted that this same person’s “goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.” Concerning this statement, D. K. Innes wrote, “These words are suited to convey both the ancient lineage of Christ as a descendant of the family of David and also His eternal pre-existence” (“Some Notes on Micah” in Evangelical Quarterly, 41, no. 3 [1969], p. 170). Because eternal existence is an attribute of deity, but not of humanity, this part of the declaration ascribed deity to the Messiah. Thus, Micah 5:2 indicated that the Messiah would be a God-Man, a unique being with deity and humanity existing in the same person. His humanity would have a beginning through conception and birth, but as a divine person, He is eternal-without beginning. Two things should be noted regarding this prophecy. First, in spite of the fact that the mother and foster father of Jesus Christ lived in the city of Nazareth (Lk. 1:26-33), as the result of an imperial decree of Rome, He was born in Bethlehem (Lk. 2:1-7) in fulfillment of Micah 5:2. Second, the ancient Jews understood Micah 5:2 to be speaking of the Messiah. This is revealed by the following events: Wise men from the east came to Jerusalem and asked King Herod, “Where is he that is born King of the Jews?” Herod asked the chief priests and scribes where the Messiah should be born. They answered, “In Bethlehem of Judæa,” and quoted Micah 5:2 as their proof (Mt. 2:1-6). The second biblical passage that contains a direct statement about the eternality of Christ is Isaiah 9:6. In a context describing the future rule of the Messiah, this passage applied the name “The Everlasting Father” to Him. Franz Delitzsch stated that this name designated the Messiah “as the possessor of eternity” and as the one who would rule His people like a loving, faithful father (Isaiah, Vol. 1, Commentaries on the Old Testament, p. 253). The third direct statement passage is John 1:1-3. Referring to Christ as “the Word,” the Apostle John stated, “In the beginning was the Word…The same was in the beginning with God” (vv. 1-2). He thereby asserted that Christ already existed with God before everything that had a beginning first began. Christ existed in eternity past before any part of creation came into existence. Concerning John’s statement, Leon Morris wrote, “The verb ‘was’ is most naturally understood of the eternal existence of the Word” (The Gospel According to John in The New International Commentary on the New Testament, p. 73). The fourth biblical passage is Hebrews 7:3. The writer declared that Christ had “neither beginning of days nor end of life.” Concerning this declaration, Leon Morris stated, “The writer is, of course, speaking of the Son’s eternal nature, not of his appearance in the Incarnation” (Hebrews, Vol. 12, The Expositor’s Bible Commentary, p. 64). The Deity of Christ The deity of Christ is the second line of evidence for His eternality. Deity’s nature is to be eternal. Thus, the Apostle Paul signified that eternality is one of God’s attributes (1 Tim. 1:17). The Scriptures present the deity of Christ; therefore, He too must be eternal by nature. The biblical evidence for Christ’s deity will be examined in a later article. Christ’s Role in Creation The Apostle John asserted the following truth concerning Christ: “All things were made by him; and without him was not anything made that was made” (Jn. 1:3). Christ played a significant role in the creation of everything that has ever been created. That work required His existence in eternity past before creation began. If Christ had not existed before the beginning of creation, He could not have been involved in the creation of everything that has ever been created. The Apostle Paul declared the same truth about Christ when he wrote, “For by him were all things created…all things were created by him, and for him; And he is before all things” (Col. 1:16-17). Herbert M. Carson said, concerning these statements about Christ by John and Paul: “Here it is the Son in His eternal being who is being described, rather than the Son as incarnate. In fact, there is a close parallel between this passage and John’s teaching concerning the eternal Word or Logos. The only-begotten is also the agent of creation…Far from being in any way a part of creation, the Son is before all things….He is eternal, while creation is in time” (The Epistles of Paul to the Colossians and Philemon in Tyndale New Testament Commentaries, pp. 42-43). The Issue of the First-Born of All Creation In Colossians 1:15 the Apostle Paul referred to Christ as “the first-born of all creation.” Some individuals and groups insist that this designation indicates that Christ was the first part of creation that God brought into existence. They claim that Paul was teaching that Christ is a created being, that He had a beginning in time and therefore is not eternal. Does the expression “the first-born of all creation” mean that Christ was the first thing created? No, it does not. Paul was not saying that Christ is a created being. Several things prompt this conclusion. First, Paul wrote Colossians to refute a heresy (Gnostic Judaism) that taught that Christ was part of creation. Second, the idea that Christ was created is contrary to the context of Paul’s reference to Christ as “the first-born of all creation.” The context teaches that Christ created everything that has been created (vv. 16-17). Thus, F. F. Bruce wrote, “The context makes it clear that this title is not given to Him as though He Himself were the first of all created beings; it is emphasized immediately that, far from being part of creation, He is the One by whom the whole creation came into being” (Commentary on the Epistle to the Colossians in The New International Commentary on the New Testament, p. 194). Third, there was a Greek word (protoktistos) that meant “first-created.” Paul did not use it here, and it is never used of Christ in the Bible. When Paul referred to Christ as “the first-born of all creation,” he was teaching that Christ existed before and is sovereign over all of creation. Fourth, the word that Paul did use (prototokos) had two connotations: priority and sovereignty. Priority had two possible sub-connotations: the first part of something or existence before something. The context of the word determines which sub-connotation is intended. The Colossians 1 context demands the sub-connotation of existence before something (vv. 16-17). Thus, when Paul referred to Christ as “the first-born of all creation,” he was teaching that Christ existed before and is sovereign over all of creation. F. F. Bruce stated, “What the title does mean is that Christ, existing as He did before all creation, exercises the privilege of primogeniture as Lord of all creation, the divinely appointed ‘heir of all things’ (Heb. 1:2). He was there when creation began, and it was for Him as well as through Him that the whole work was done” (Ibid.).

[@jeremiahrowesr.3130]

Charles Smith here is more for you yes Trinitarian‘s don’t stop because God exists eternally as three coexistent coeternal persons these three persons are not three gods they are one God. I’ll give an example think of time, time is only one right but time can also have seasons, months years in decades, time can also be the time on your watch, you can also have a central pacific and eastern time zones, and you have past present and future. So is there multitudes of times? Absolutely not that’s foolishness, but there’s only one time past present and future do not all exist together they’re all three distinct you have seasons like winter spring fall and summer they’re all distinct but that’s time, you have the time on your phone is the same time, you have central eastern and Pacific That’s still time years decades months that’s still time time doesn’t change. So once again God didn’t change when he took on human flesh. God is still an eternal spirit OK he always will be and always has been, just because he takes on human flesh he does not stop seizing to exist that is what you as a person who is a non-believer fails to understand. You fail to look at Christ deity he himself without saying I am God worship me or I am god he didn’t have to say that, but he made it known that he was God. Even the apostles knew that Jesus was God. Even the Pharisees knew that Jesus claimed to be God several times, this is why he was crucified now because he claimed to be the Messiah but he claimed to also be God. We find us in John chapter 10 verse 30 and 33 Charles, he says I and my father are one meaning one in nature and essence this is called neuter in Greek means essence nature or unity that is what that means. however when you said that God is an eternal spirit that is true, however there’s no scripture anywhere that says at all that God himself cannot take on human flesh. you’re gonna quote numbers 23 verse 19 out of contacts like Jehovah’s Witnesses like yourself do, you’re gonna quote out of context Numbers chapter 23 verse 19 does not say at all that God cannot take on human flesh it does not say this nor has it ever said this. So quit lying Charles when the Bible says clearly and efficiently that Jesus Christ is the Almighty God and he himself says it out of his own mouth that he is the Almighty then that’s it it’s all done it’s all over. So what you said was stupid, in revelation for example chapter 1 verse seven and verse eight Jesus himself verifies that he was the one that was pierced the one that was coming on the clouds, John makes this clear that this is a Christ Jesus how do we notice. It’s very simple the one coming on the clouds Jesus said will be the son of man who was the son of man Christ Jesus and he sits at the right hand of the father how do we know this because Jesus is the one to judge all nations according to Matthew he is the one judging all nations of the entire world no angel nor man on earth can do such a thing but only God can. Jesus makes us very claim that he will judge all nations that is fact. And I will give you more evidence and more scripture to show what I am speaking about so to say a fellow brother in Christ is wrong on what he teaches that’s the actual Greek whether you like it or not Jehovah’s Witness that is what it peaches and that’s what you need to except. So Charles I will give you more evidence that Jesus Christ is God according to your own New World translation Jesus clarifies in there that he is indeed Jehovah God. Not only that but in John chapter 1 verse one of the New World translation, the Word was with God that word was means has always has always and eternally existed.

[@JimOverbeckgenius]

It's not repetitious because the Logos is minimax: the least is a god & the most is God - i.e. - it's a transfigurational code = a mode of becoming by means of theosis. The least is theos = a god = a perfect man & the most is God Almighty = ho theos. When imperfect mortals become perfect they become gods = deification = divinization.

[@saralakatos1360]

💯

[@issith7340]

No it doesn’t say all this. It’s more simple words

[@sonoftheking2710]

Gitan (Ήταν) or (εἶναι) this is the Greek word for WAS and not this word (ἦν) as all the people saying. This word used secondarily for WAS word and not primarily. Can check it in Google translate or Greek and English dictionary. In Greek bible it is written:- John 1:1 Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος The actual translation is IN beginning 'I AM' the word, and the word 'I AM' with God, and the god 'I AM' is word. I don't know why people who translate it do not translate the real translation. If the verse says :- John 1:1 IN the beginning was the word, And the word was with God, And the word was God. I will question like this 1) what word? 2) which word? 3) which God? 4) why God is word? 5) why should I bother the word was with god or not? 6) so the word was with God in the past, this means now with whom the word is? 7) God exist in word form at past according to this verse and now where is god because now the word with us in a book form? So if the verse translated in actual translation, all the questions answered and nobody can question God's word. The word 'I AM'. They changed it to the word 'WAS'. IN the beginning 'I am' the word, and the word 'I am' with God, and the god 'I am' is word. Its like God addressing his very 1st name is I AM. and if we read the whole Bible, the word I AM is mentioned for 300 times start from genesis 15.1 to revalation 22.16. The verse was fabricated. Not only this verse but lot more I encounter in new testament. Was so depressed because of this matter. They said so many editions was revised but they didn't took the original Scripture to revise but they use the fabricated verse and revised it into more fabrication. They swindle gods word. Satan was doing this using those who do the revise. I pray so that these things changed soon. Thank you almighty holy father jesus christ that show me these truth to reveal to my brothers and sisters. I'm sorry my English is in the learning stage. But my point is there. Please do check the Greek bible for the real understanding. Thank you. May God bless everybody.

[@smalltimer4370]

There is no "I AM" found or written anywhere in John 1.1 - seriously now, are we even trying at this stage? In addition to this, the Greek title "ton theon" is translated "the GOD", whereas "theos" relates to numerous concepts such as; godly, god-like, divine, a God and GOD Though what's most outstanding here, is the distinctions made between the GOD and the word that was GOD in the Greek text, as Greek readers would not confound the two as is commonly found in English translations.

[@cyanpepper473]

You cant call jesus holy father as he is the son of god. He can never be with himself vis theos with theos ...really? Holy spirit not even mentioned in john 1.

[@issith7340]

Ην: past tense of the verb : i am ,Ήταν: past continuous tense of the same word. My god every one here is pretending to know greek, and knows nothing. I’m just someone from greece, that accidentally saw the nonsense you talk about. Greek is an accurate and rather simple language. You don’t have much space to doubt about the meaning of every word , cause you just can’t misunderstand. Try to translate from the original greek text and not the latin, that was translated from greek etc etc.

[@MichaelTheophilus906]

Trinitarian eisegesis: The Word is Jesus. God is a trinity. In the beginning was Jesus and Jesus was with the trinity, and Jesus was the trinity. Jesus was in the beginning with the trinity.

[@AstariahFox]

Hahaha

[@user-pj7sq7ce1f]

Erasmus way to say greek insults greeks we never used or use that way .

[@danbos7465]

Exactly, the Bible was written in Greek, follow the Greeks. How could of they possibly got it wrong. That's why I am eastern orthodox church , everything else is heresy.

[@lettherebelight1492]

In the beginning was the WORD and the WORD was with Yahweh and The WORD was Yahweh. John 1:1

[@MrZOMBIExxxKILLER]

Letthere belight wrong! Why don't Christians read the sahidic coptic bible? Because if they did the whole Jesus is the almighty scheme would fall. Sahidic Coptic was one of the first translations and one of the earliest Egyptian dialects which is similar to english because it has indefinitive articles and John reads- In the beginning was the word, and the word was with god, and the word was "a"(indefinitive article) god. Yahweh and Yeshua are not the same. You are being deceived.

[@lettherebelight1492]

wDavid Montes Moses law says Yahshua would die upon a LIVING TREE. Not a cross. Crosses are satanic symbols. The Mark of the beast will be the cross of jesus. Yahshua NEVER said He was Yahweh. Yahshua walked this earth for 30 years WITHOUT the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit is the Spirit of Yahweh's SON. Gal.4:6 Yahshua received the second death. Rom. 6: 23. Yahweh ALONE has immortality. 1 Tim. 6: 16. Immortality CANNOT die. YAHWEH is Spirit. John 4:24 A spirit CANNOT be pierced. The 'trinity' totally DENIES the death Yahweh's SON Yahshua. Be aware of pagan Christian teaching. The Christians LIE. There are NO Christians in the scripture. They were first called: "Anointed ONES" in Antioch. Agrippa said: "Almost thou persuadest me to be an ANOINTED ONE". Look it up. Be aware of PAGAN words put in the bible to deceive the people.When a Christian is born again they CEASE from being Christians and are GRAFTED into Born Again Israel. Prov. 30:4 . His Name is Yahweh and His SON'S Name is Yahshua. The Words Christ (S) and Christian (s) are NOWHERE found in the SCRIPTURES.The WORD used in the SCRIPTURES is : "Anointed ONES" . The bible is a TRANSLATION of the Hebrew scriptures. The scriptures were written in Hebrew from Genesis to Revelation. The Christians translated the NEW Covenant scriptures into GREEK to remove the Name of the Creator YAHWEH and put their pagan greek god jesus in the bible. YAHweh's SON has ONLY one Name: YAHshua. Christianity is a PAGAN religion. The pagans that worshiped Serapis called themselves "CHRISTIANS". Christianity is the religion of the FALSE messiah. Yahweh let the Christians put pagan words in the bible to HIDE the truth from the sinners. Yahweh uses the bible to separate the Sheep from the goats. May Yahweh give you the understanding in these SALVATION scriptures for YOU. Bless you. Show less REPLY

[@MrZOMBIExxxKILLER]

Letthere belight I do not believe in the cross. I do not believe in the so called "rapture" I am Fairly new to bible studying i have read the bible three times and i have come to understand many things and see things differently.

[@lettherebelight1492]

wDavid Montes The rapture is FABLE. A make believe story. Mat. 5:5 proves the rapture is a LIE. Yahweh has blinded the Christians because they LOVE sin. FATAL. Leviticus and Exodus says there would be 66 books in the bible thousand of years before the scriptures were translated into the bible. On the table of shewbread there are 12 unleavened breads arranged in two rows of 6. 6 on the left and 6 on the right. 6 -6 = 66 books. For it is written in the Psalms: Thy WORD is a lamp unto my feet. The Lampstand has 7 branches. On each branch there are 3 blossoms, 3 buds and 3 fruits. A total of 9. 9 X 6 branches = 54. On the middle branch there are 4 blossoms, 4 buds and 4 fruits. 4 + 4 + 4 = 12. 54 + 12 = 66. The OLD covenant has 39 books. the 3 branches on the left = 27 + 12 of the middle branch= 39. The NEW covenant has 27 books. The 3 branches on the right = 27. The Book of Daniel is SEALED until the time of the end. Daniel 12: 4 and 9. Rev. 10 : 8-10 is the UNSEALING of the Book of Daniel. The little book. Daniel chapters 7 to 12 are ALL FUTURE. Will come to pass upon the LAST generation. Daniel 8: 14 is talking about the DAILY sacrifice. 2,300 burnt offerings. 1 in the morning at 9 AM & 1 in the evening at 3 PM. 2 per day. 2,300/2 = 1,150 days. The heavenly sanctuary will be cleansed from the unintentional sins of the Saints on the 10TH day of Tishri at the time of the evening sacrifice. Gen. 6: 3 is the YEAR of the second coming. 120 Jubilee's . From Adam to the 1ST coming was 4,000 years. 80 jubilee's From 1ST coming to the 2ND coming will be 2,000 years. 40 jubilee's. 4,000 years + 2,000 years = 6,000 years. 80 jubilee's + 40 jubilee's = 120 jubilee's. Hosea 6: 1-3 2 days/2,000 years. The 3RD day is the thousand year reign of Yahshua on the earth made NEW. ALL days mentioned in Daniel are literal days. Seventy 'sevens' = 490 literal days. Rev. 11 is Moses and Elijah. The eastern gate is SHUT until the false messiah comes. Ezekiel 44: 1-3 The false messiah will enter through the eastern gate onto Ezekiel's temple pretending to be fulfilling scripture. Yahweh's Messiah Yahshua fulfilled this prophecy less than 2,000 years ago when He entered through the eastern gate/golden gate and went into the temple mount to present Himself as the Passover Lamb for inspection 4 days before Passover. Mat. 21. They found No fault in Him. Perfect scripture. A lamb WITHOUT spot. Yahshua will bring His bride with Him at His second coming. Yahshua's bride is: " Rev. 21: 9-10". John 14: 1-3 The place Yahshua went away to prepare is the New Jerusalem. Abraham looked for a city made WITHOUT hands. The *great valley* will be the resting place of the New Jerusalem as HOME for the SAINTS during the thousand year reign of Yahshua on the earth made NEW. Zech. 14:4 May Yahweh bless you.

[@lettherebelight1492]

wDavid Montes The Mark of the beast will be " the cross of jesus". Bless you.

[@johnnydavis5923]

Your translation is to support your false belief

[@papakisful]

people pay this guy to teach them greek?? hope not. EXEJESUS lol

[@bobpolo2964]

Huh?

[@chm5750]

Huh?

[@approvedofGod]

First of all, the presenter is not explaining what Bible version he is using. This determines what Greek translation he is working with. By the second verse (using He, instead of "the same") it is easily determined that he is using a modern version such as the New American Standard or the English Standard version. Secondly, he does not make mention that the word "logos" is the most common used word in the New Testament. Strong's Concordance #3056 reveals that logos is not a second divine being or person but the "spoken word or utterance of God." Bible students must be aware of these things to understand fully what is directly in front of them. Otherwise, the person can easily fall into error, even by using the Greek. Thanks.

[@andrewthemorley]

They tend to use HCSB or ESV at Ridley I think. This seems to be a sample from a larger online course and video, cut down for KZbin.

[@bobpolo2964]

approve - Are you arguing that Jesus is not of divine essence?

[@treadingtheway3730]

@@bobpolo2964 i think he is not suggesting that. He is saying that the Word(Jesus) is part of God. You know that the nature of God the creator cannot fully comprehend by the mind of the human the created(creation).

[@bobpolo2964]

@@treadingtheway3730 Who is Jesus Christ?

[@treadingtheway3730]

@@bobpolo2964 like most people, i can't give you the right answer that might satisfy your question except of what I understand to the best of my ability through reading the scripture and listening to the arguments between believers. Jesus is the Son of God - Son of the Most High. The Jewish Messiah. He is not a created being He is the Word of God. He is the living Torah. He is the Judge. He is the Alpha and Omega. He is the same yesterday, today and forever. He is perfect(without sin). He is the truth. He is the life. He is the way. He is the light. He is the Rock. He is the Redeemer. He is the Good Shepherd. He is the Lamb of God. He is the mediator, the High Priest, the King, the Master, the God of the new covenant. As many as i can write, i know it is still lacking for my knowledge of God is just like a child. Having written all that, I know I can't fully comprehend His nature.

[@user-oj7yc7lc7c]

Sorry but you don't know Greek. You are wrong

[@GreekOrthodox7]

Exactly, non-Greeks shouldn’t be teaching Greek. And all of these people in the comments are also non-Greeks blindly listening to a non-Greek teaching them wrong Greek. If only they actually listened to GREEKS teach OUR LANGUAGE, the common sense thing to do. Everyone does it for other languages, but for Greek they listen to a British person teach? Sad. Learn Greek from Greeks only.

[@Jimmy5991-eb3re]

He actually grouped θεον and θεός to mean thing? Θεόν and θεός do not mean the same thing. Θεος is a general description. It can be used for and angel or even a human like a King. In 2 Corinthians 4:4 it’s used to describe Satan. So Satan is actually called A god that is a θεός. In John 1:1 the word θεον (Theon) is talking about “The God” that is Jehovah. The word θεός (theos) which would mean “a god” is talking about Jesus. Besides HOW can a person be WITH a someone and be that same person??? That math makes NO sense whatsoever. So translating θεός to be “a god” is a very accurate translation.

[@user-pj7sq7ce1f]

Wrong Θεός and Θεόν mean both God in greek.

[@Jimmy5991-eb3re]

@@user-pj7sq7ce1f Correction. Θεός, Θεον, θεό and θεού are all related. I do know in John 1:1 Θεό is the modern Greek and Θεόν is 1’s century. Θεον is talking about Jehovah and θεός is talking about Jesus. So that is talking about 2 people. Remember 2 Corinthians 4:4 uses the phrase “ό θεός” now is that talking about Jesus? Jehovah? Absolutely not!!! That is Satan! So in English Satan is clearly “A god”. And Acts 28:6 the Ancient Greek called the apostle Paul Θεον the modern Greek uses θεός. The KJV says “A god.” But I guess as long as it doesn’t fit the trinity teaching it has to mean nothing.

[@user-pj7sq7ce1f]

@@Jimmy5991-eb3re well you have to read words in context for example Πνεύμα in the NT can mean God the essence of God the Holy Spirit an angel a soul a demon aiir etc .

[@user-pj7sq7ce1f]

@@Jimmy5991-eb3re Now about the Trinity. It is an issue of theophany at first not reading a text book

[@Jimmy5991-eb3re]

@@user-pj7sq7ce1f I can tell you don’t know Greek. Πνεύμα actually means “you”. That is you as a person. It doesn’t mean God or the holy spirit let alone an angel. It means “soul” you are your soul.