PHY102 - The Phoneme II

Phonemes are the central building blocks in phonology. Using the physical approach towards the phoneme this e-lecture discusses the method of using minimal pairs to discover the phonemes of a language as well as the phenomenon of free variation. This clip is thus a supplement to "Phonology - The phoneme Part I".

[@MrBadshah74]

I am watching videos and I got very much confidence in Linguistics by watching.

[@Kathiuska10]

Thank you very much! I hope to find more vids like this!

[@ThatFudgeGuy]

Thanks a lot. Preparing for the National level MARRS Spelling Bee in India. Helps a lot in Phonemic Awareness.

[@mh89488]

(2) I'm Finnish and I study French at the university. Both languages have [p] as a phoneme, but I'm quite sure there's still a tiny difference between them, French [p] being very very slightly aspirated whereas the Finnish [p] is not. The reason is probably that Finnish doesn't really have [b] phoneme, although Finnish people think we have :)

[@apa9560]

Great tutorials! |Thanks.

[@saeidlabbafan6839]

perfect, awesome. really u r a great teacher, than u so much.

[@omarmayara]

really useful thank you

[@MrBadshah74]

Thank you sir

[@oer-vlc]

/p/ is a phoneme of all major languages. Its standard allophones are [p], e.g. after /s/ as in "spin" (in the E-Lecture), a more or less aspirated [pʰ], mostly in pre-vocalic position and an allophone [p̚] where the plosion part is completely absent (esp. in word-final position). Furthermore, /b/ is part of the phonemic system of these languages: German /pas/ vs. /bas/, PDE /pen/ vs. /ben/ etc. It is unlikely that [b] is then an allophone of /p/, unless you have a case of phonemic overlapping.

[@Wyzz222]

May I have the link to the Google Maps Cognate Comparison from 11:00 onwards? I have an account in the Virtual Linguistics Campus but am not sure where to find this. Thanks!

[@mh89488]

(1) Thank you for wonderful videos. May I ask, why [p] is rather an allophone of [pʰ] than [b]? Is that because the voiced/voiceless is considered to be more distinctive feature than aspirated/non-aspirated. I know that you are aware that there are languages with a distinction of three degree /b/, /p/ and /pʰ/.

[@anisafitria9727]

What the mapp app us use?

[@adeleskaros2456]

What website did you use?

[@abioyeopeyemi4222]

Please sir, if the substitution of one allophone for another allophone of the same phoneme doesn't change the meaning of a word, can we say they are in free variation?

[@oer-vlc]

kzbin.info/www/bejne/fWmspWdsfsehq68

[@bonbonpony]

06:50 Woow this is wacky! :O What sort of crazy voo-doo magic is this?

[@christopheclugston]

[p] and [ph] are not distinctive in English--they are in languages like Thai. [p] sounds like [b] to L1 English speakers. All initial /p/ in English are [ph].like the German /d/ is realized as [t] in non initial position.