Rule 39: The Accusative Subject of an Infinitive

The accusative case can function as more than a direct object - it can be the subject of certain infinitives. This rule applies to the infinitive when it's being used as an object of certain verbs like iubeo and veto, as well as the infinitive in an indirect statement.

[@Learn_The_Cube]

So no one's gonna mention we got to rule #69 Ok youtube

[@Learn_The_Cube]

@Kamari Ty is this some sort of scam?

[@aarspar]

Um, isn't the first one actually the object of the main verb? Like, Caesar Labienum collem ascendere iubet = Caesar orders Labienum to climb the hill. It's just because of Latin word order that puts the main verb after the clause. (or it's okay just ignore me I only learn Latin online what do I know)

[@latintutorial]

It's typical with iubeo to treat these both as objects (Labienum and ascendere). I talk about this a bit towards the beginning, about how Labienum is similar to an accusative direct object, but we're approaching indirect statement territory here, which is not as clear cut as you'd think. Or better, it’s unwise to draw hard lines in grammar. There’s often a lot of gray area between things, while it’s easier to teach and learn with strict definitions.

[@andrewcorrie8936]

I was just wondering the same: I order you to sit, where "you" is the dir. obj. of "I order"

[@roshnimishra1366]

How do you know what the subject of infinitive is when there are more than one accusative?

[@petersuranyi7309]

From context. e. g. : pater iussit filiam cibum emere. You can translate either "the father ordered his food to buy a daughter" or "...his daughter to buy food". In this example the first translation is nonsense.

[@picarochi]

@@petersuranyi7309 This may be clear in some cases (such as your example), but not others.

[@cornmono3665]

My delight was great in Italian 101 when I learned the mood of the verb doesn’t change for indirect statement, but I’m still amazed that the change came about. Not surprised since it’s more simple but still amazed.

[@latintutorial]

That just goes to show you that Latin is generally more complicated than most normal people want or need. The choices made by the modern Romance languages are good proof to this.

[@farhanaditya2647]

1:39 How would you distinguish it from "I want to know you"?

[@mikepez]

Awesome as always! Thanks for so many years of great videos.

[@jaydenkim31]

Thank you for your lessons. I have a question. "Putat se esse oratorem."Why is an accusative 'oratorem' used here?

[@charleschapman4744]

Because 'esse' is acting as a linking verb, so the subject and complement have to be in the same case. Here, 'oratorem' is telling us more about 'se', so case agreement is important. Consider a simple direct statement: '(is) est orator', 'He is an orator' Nominative - existence verb - Nominative Now the indirect statement: 'putat se esse oratorem', 'He thinks that he is an orator' Accusative - existence verb - Accusative

[@viperking6573]

thank you! incredible

[@lukedurham8212]

The best explanation of this

[@cornmono3665]

2:20 Ah section 31 of Bradley’s Arnold. Our professor referred back to the section with the list of verbs that take an ut subjunctive noun clause rather than an accusative + infinitive _numerous_ times.

[@latintutorial]

Brutal.

[@trieukhanghuynh7299]

Thank you so much!

[@F3z07]

Thank you!