A Crash Course in Formal Logic Pt 5d, Conversion, Obversion and Contraposition

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[@Mark-qt8fs]

I assume 16:10 is supposed to say "Contraposition" not "Conversion."

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THANK YOU!! Very clear and simple explanations.

[@PhilHelper]

+Myrna Chicas You're very welcome.

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[@Sorya-gf7qw]

Some says Conversion of A is I . 5:46 Some ladies are human. It's acceptable . Although we can't go forth . Like E and I .

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[@PhilHelper]

THANK YOU FOR COMMENTING. I hope you find the other logic videos that I posted to be equally useful.

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[@elghunk]

If the antecedent and consequent of a conditional swap places, can you call this an illicit conversion?

[@PhilHelper]

It would be a deductive fallacy, yes. But since the term "illicit conversion" is already defined within categorical logic, you might need to find a different term to denote the fallacy which you describe that only occurs in propositional logic.

[@elghunk]

I see that fallacyfiles.org calls this illicit operation "Commutation of Conditionals". I will adopt this expression then. Thanks for taking the time to respond to my comments! I have only part 8c left and then I have seen all of them. Very high quality on the illustration stuff and great pedagogical work!

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this was very helpful thank you

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this is very helpful!

[@SirMillz]

I'm curious, can you tell me is this argument valid or invalid? No P are S, therefore, some S are P. Where the first Venn graph is shaded in the intersection, and the second Venn graph has an asterisk in the intersection. I think the answer is "valid" but I am not sure. Basicly: if the first Venn has a shaded area and the second Venn has an asterisk in the same area the first Venn is shaded in, is that considered valid? Even though the two S&P Venns are not identical? Thank you.

[@carloslago3575]

You can make an "A" conversion by limitation. You limit the Universal to the particular. Then you have an "I" by limitation just by switching subject and predicate. Because the truth of the sub alternative "I" can be inferred from the truth of the super alternative "A"

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[@shahidkhan-ev7yi]

Why E and I are perfectly valid in conversion?

[@Sorya-gf7qw]

Because if you draw their vein diagram they are exactly same . Conversion can also be valid for A and U . For example All S are P conversion some P are S . Here both statements don't oppose each other and this conversion is vaild one way around but not exact same .

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Life saver

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Thanks so much

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5:28 - 🤣🤣🤣

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nice ppt pres4ntation...

[@Syllogist]

In my video «09-02. Расчёт силлогизмов модусов АIх, AOx, IAx, OAx… / РАЗГАДКА «Бермyдских треугoльников» ЛОГИКИ-2 / Calculation of syllogisms of modes АIх, AOx, IAx, OAx... / SOLVING THE "Bermuda Triangles" OF LOGIC-2»: kzbin.info/www/bejne/b17EiICceK6aoZY I used print-screen(s) from yours video. Thank you!

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