Answering viewers' quesitons: Pronunciation of Spanish v

[@angelt9862]

You are very concise yet thorough in your explanations. I appreciate that.

[@tenminutespanish]

Thank you. I'm very happy you liked the video.

[@davidcrandall3643]

Many Colombians, people from the middle of Central America and some Canary Islanders reportedly tend to pronounce , , and occlusively [b d g] after any consonant or semivowel.

[@tingal]

Thank you so much for all your lessons. I’m watching the core phonetics and phonology playlist, and 28 videos in, BRAVO. I have never heard anyone else explain pronunciation as well as you do. 💛

[@tenminutespanish]

@@tingal Thank you so much. I'm glad you're enjoying the videos.

[@mle3699]

Great video. I think the fact that b/v, d, & g have two different pronunciations is one of the most important pronunciation tips I ever learned. (Gracias por tus videos al respecto.) I would say say that most natives (without formal study) probably have no idea of that, the same way I had no idea that /th/ has 2 different pronunciations...you just do it without being aware of it.

[@tenminutespanish]

Thank you, and thanks for the insightful comment about Spanish phonology.

[@ballsxan]

Even most natives with formal study won't notice those differences, so their explanations won't be useful.

[@thane_snipes]

Thanks for all the hard work you do. Your videos are excellent. I have an addition to make: the sound [v] has, as far as I know, never existed in Spanish or any or its ancestors at least since Classical Latin, wherein the letter v represented [w]. [β] was a common allophonic variation in vulgar latin sociolects from early on, but unlike Italian or Portuguese, [v] never developed in Spanish, except for Ladino (which I guess you could call a Spanish off-shoot). The [v] pronunciation for the letter v in Latin is a relatively modern invention, most notably the ecclesiastical latin pronunciation system uses it because it's basically Italian phonology applied to Latin. Take everything I just said with a pinch of salt, I'm hardly an expert, just a hobbyist. Cheers.

[@tenminutespanish]

Thank you for your kind words. I'm very happy you like my videos. With regard to the pronunciation of the letter [v]. Spanish phonology does not descend directly from Classical Latin phonology. Spanish phonology descends from Iberian Romance which was the local variety of Vulgar Latin spoken in Iberia. It is well attested that the [v] pronunciation of was common in varieties of Vulgar Latin all over the Roman Empire, starting as early as the 1st century. And it is known that this is true for Iberian Romance, as well. So, yes, some version of Romance ancestral to Spanish DID have the [v] sound associated with the letter . Apart from the fact that this is attested, you can use the comparative method to derive what features a dialect of Romance must have had: If a feature exists in many different dialects, then it is most likely that that feature existed in the ancestral language that gave rise to those dialects. (It is unlikely for a feature to arise independently but in exactly the same way in different dialects.) The [v] sound is associated with the letter in many Romance languages. Therefore, that feature must have been present in the ancestral language that gave rise to them. If Spanish diverges from that pattern, it wouldn't be because Spanish never had the [v] sound. That would be incongruous. It would be because Spanish had the [v] sound, just like all its sister dialects, but then lost it. Anyway, this last line of reasoning, while solid, is unnecessary with the [v] sound, because it is attested.

[@thane_snipes]

@@tenminutespanish In that case, I stand corrected. Keep up the good work.

[@tenminutespanish]

@@thane_snipes Thank you!

[@Sandalwoodrk]

I think a big issue for English speaking learners is that The Spanish Soft-B sound can sound like a bi-labial V, which isn't a phoneme in English And so English speakers just associate the sound with Labiodental-V Because that's a level of deviation that can happen in English and not Spanish

[@tenminutespanish]

I think you're right.

[@JairoOrtizT]

Those two pronunciations come almost naturally for us Spanish speakers. I didn't even notice 😁

[@peterstedman6140]

The hablantes nativos get the freebie pronunciation habits in every language

[@Hannib4lBarca]

Great video as always.

[@tenminutespanish]

Thank you!!

[@CW-zs9il]

I’m new to your channel, and I want to first say that this is one of the best resources I’ve found for improving my Spanish pronunciation and I am incredibly grateful for your content! Thank you! I have a doubt about this topic. You mentioned that n is pronounced as m before b/v; in that case, would the bilabial in “tan bien” (as in “tan bien como”) be pronounced exactly the same as “también” ?

[@tenminutespanish]

Thank you! The answer to your question is yes, tan bien and también are phonetically identical.

[@ZhivagoDoctor]

The best !!!

[@seron2568]

Quick question, if we say to some people we want them to hurry "vamos" a lot of times in a row, like "Vamos, vamos, vamos, vamos!!!", the ⟨v⟩ on the first "vamos" will sound as [b] and the rest of them as [β]? Thank you for your explanatory videos, you have the best channel regarding spanish pronunciation.

[@tenminutespanish]

It may he hard [b] each time, or some of the time, or it may be soft b sometimes. Sorry for the vague answer. The pronunciation rules I explain are true during normal, natural, spontaneous speech. During unusual situations, pronunciation may be different. When speaking emphatically, v at the beginning of a word is more likely to be pronounced hard. If the speaker interprets the end of each word as the end of an utterance, then all or some of those v's may be interpreted as utterance initial, etc. It's really hard to say. My instincts tell me that each of those would be hard [b], because you're speaking emphatically and with tiny pauses between repetitions.

[@seron2568]

@@tenminutespanish Ok, I got what you mean! Thank you for your help!

[@colint620]

I think I have heard [v] as an allophone of [f] in limited contexts before a voiced consonant as in "Afganistán."

[@tenminutespanish]

How interesting!

[@anonymoushominus]

This is correct, my linguistics professor actually pointed this exact thing out to me last week

[@walterwheeler1035]

I thought my ears were playing tricks on me. So glad someone else has noticed this after all the recent events bringing it to my attention!

[@walterwheeler1035]

Después de ver tu video, me he fijado que mi esposa de Chile pronuncia [v] como fricativo. Pero, es más suave como una mezcla de [B] (suave) y de [v]. Quizás sea su dialecto o pueda ser la influencia de inglés porque aprende desde hace dos años. Muchas gracias, voy a prestar atención a los otros chilenos para distinguir lo que sea de su región.

[@mausilili1371]

It might not be directly related to the content of this video, but i want to share something that i observed from my daughter as she was still a little child and learning to speak, she used to pronounce v as b quite often, like the name victoria, she would pronounce it as bictoria, i wonder if these two sounds b and v are generally phonetically related in some way?

[@cabarete2003]

I was going to suggest, if you haven't done so...and it is your show you don't have to listen to me...but just a suggestion that you do a {b} vs {p} video that shows how the two are pronounced in English and in Spanish. I think it really hones one in on the two in Spanish. As an observer of this video, I was thinking that one may leave thinking that the "hard b" {b} is pronounced the same as in English.

[@tenminutespanish]

Thanks for the suggestion. I think b vs p would be helpful and interesting. Regarding hard b: Spanish occlusive b and English occlusive b are very much alike. English hard b is a bit more forceful, but they're very much alike. Please remember, I'm talking about occlusive b, which in Spanish only appears at the beginning of utterances and after m. Most Spanish b sounds are bilabial approximant and are very soft.

[@cabarete2003]

@@tenminutespanish for me that lesson helped polish my Spanish knowing that 1. The English b and Spanish p are similar…say “bin” in English and “pino” in Spanish; 2. The nature of the English p…say in “put”…that has the aspiration after explosión (not sure the term in English) and the lack of that characteristic in Spanish; 3. And, as you mentioned about the English b, the production of sound prior to explosión in Spanish…giving the be a less blunt sound. Sorry, your channel discusses a topic I really enjoy. I don’t meet many who know anything about it to discuss it.

[@tenminutespanish]

@@cabarete2003 I genuinely appreciate your knowledgeable comments. Thank you.

[@kingjimmycraftofcalderonia2017]

7:18, so maybe that is why my mom and grandparents told me that Spanish “v” is pronounced “differently.” I thought it was some sort of dialect or something.

[@tenminutespanish]

They lied to you, my friend. Lies.

[@kingjimmycraftofcalderonia2017]

@@tenminutespanish Okay, lol.

[@ven4513]

Hi. Thank you for the video. I was curious about this song from an Argentinian TV show: kzbin.info/www/bejne/eqWliHV9iamWaKM All the v words, like vivir (see 0:28) or vives (1:29) sound to me like they're pronounced with a 'v' sound as opposed to 'b'. Am I just not hearing the 'b'? Or are they actually pronouncing it as a 'v'?

[@tenminutespanish]

People pronounce differently when singing, reading, or even speaking in stylistically marked ways. When I describe a pronunciation "rule" it is a description of the average way people speak during spontaneous natural speech in standard Spanish. But it doesn't always apply to other contexts, like singing. Same thing in English. We pronounce differently when singing, reading aloud, etc.

[@ven4513]

@@tenminutespanish Thank you for the explanation and quick response. Much appreciated.

[@joshadams8761]

Mexicans use the question “V de vaca o b de burro?” to disambiguate those two letters.

[@tenminutespanish]

Absolutely. This is extremely common all over the Spanish speaking world.

[@lygophilia4127]

I'm still confused on how to make the soft V without just making the W, which it doesn't sound like you're doing. Honestly, it still sounds a bit like the English V to me, just less emphatic. Are the top teeth supposed to touch the inside of the bottom lip? That's the only way I can figure to make a similar sound. But then I just watched another video making the same points as you about the hard and soft V/B, but his soft V/B pronunciation was closer to W...

[@tenminutespanish]

It's like pronouncing a [v] only with both your lips instead of with your lower lip and upper teeth.

[@lygophilia4127]

​@@tenminutespanishI pronounce V with my lower lip and upper teeth, not the other way around. 🤔 Both lips and no teeth is W. 🤷‍♀ I dunno...

[@tenminutespanish]

@@lygophilia4127 You're right. I got the lip/teeth backwards. Both lips a certain distance apart is w. Bring them close enough together to create air turbulence and it's a fricative.

[@lygophilia4127]

@@tenminutespanishThank you! I'll work on it.

[@dgoins6]

I have noticed that 1st or 2nd generation latinos living in the United States will use the /v/ sound when speaking Spanish. I'm assuming that because they were raised and schooled here in the US the sound has morphed. My native Spanish teacher beat it into my head - "it's a b." You mean like a soft.... She cut me off. "It's a b! Don't overthink it! " Yes ma'am

[@tenminutespanish]

Excellent observation. There are several sounds that 2nd generation bilinguals pronounce a little differently. V, ll/y, soft g/j.

[@dgoins6]

@@tenminutespanish True. My winter retreat is to Veracruz. Being a port city the language is influenced by cubans, argentinians, etc. When I return to the States I will say something like para llevar as para che bar. They correct me with yeh bar. The double L pronunciation varies.

[@tonyf3431]

doesn't [v] exist as an allophone of /f/ before voiced consonants? obviously, that almost never happens, but presumably there are _some_ loans that end in F, right? -not that I can think of any- and then those could precede a word beginning with a voiced consonant I'm primarily basing this off of the fact that /s/ becomes [z] before voiced consonants, and I'm guessing /s/ isn't unique in that respect. of course, this is irrelevant to the pronunciation of the letter V, and is basically just a technicality.

[@tenminutespanish]

Yes, you're right. The f in Afganistán can be pronounced as [v], I think.

[@adrianlimon7974]

I'm from the Arizona/ Sonora area and some Mexicans including my family pronounce the v and b differently. But I'd say our v is like your described soft b. We're aware that the v sound supposedly doesn't exist in the Spanish language but I think that's debatable with regard to the proto Latin you referenced and other sources on this subject. My middle name is Vargas but I would never pronounce it Bargas. Nor would I say Biba Mexico or conbibir. I think it's subtle but I also believe the Spanish spoken here has been influenced for years by the proximity to the states. I know you say it's wrong but I'll continue to pronounce my soft V otherwise why have two letters? Or why have C,S or Z for that matter? Either way I like your videos... thanks.

[@tenminutespanish]

Please understand that I'm not saying that any particular pronunciation is "wrong". I'm very careful to use words like "standard" or "non-standard". And I distinguish between how native speakers and non-natives use the language.

[@LimeGreenTeknii]

Ok, but how do you pronounce "obvio?"

[@dgoins6]

Ohb byoh

[@LimeGreenTeknii]

@@dgoins6 Hard Bs? That would break the rule that it's only hard at the beginning of an utterance and after an m sound, wouldn't it?

[@tenminutespanish]

Depends on context. When spoken in spontaneous natural speech by someone who isn't thinking about it, it would be [ó.βjo]. But natives pronounce things differently when speaking slowly and enunciating carefully. And many of them were taught in school to pronounce with old-fashioned Latin pronunciation. So, you may get something like [ób.vjo] if you ask a native to pronounce it for you.

[@dgoins6]

I'm not a linguist and don't know how to write it out correctly. The first part is a hard B . OB. The second part has the dipthong io (yo) with a soft b. Byoh. So oB byoh. Here's a link to Forvo where you can hear a native say obvio. forvo.com/word/obvio/

[@tenminutespanish]

@@dgoins6 It is important to remember that natives pronounce differently when reading than when speaking casually, especially when they're thinking about pronouncing something "correctly". This is particularly true when talking about b/v, where native language arts teachers have passed along ancient Latin pronunciation, even though people don't use it today.

[@Monke1312_]

I don't think you offended anyone with your comments on how you pronounce V, it's that now that their question was fixed, there is no need for the comment any more, so they delete it

[@johnharlowslophentoophilin494]

Hi, I have a question unrelated to the video. When reading aloud (And when talking in general) your voice sounds different to yourself than it does to others. Do you know of any ways to hear your "real voice" the same way others hear it real time? I'm worried when I read aloud I am making errors that I can't hear because of that.

[@tenminutespanish]

Yes, you can buy a microphone with built-in mic monitoring. You speak into the microphone and listen to yourself through earphones. I have two students I'm working with right now on pronunciation, and we use a system something like this so we can hear each other's and our own voices. But I think it's easier to just record yourself speaking or reading aloud and then listen to the recording. Cheap and easy.

[@JuanPablo_RDM]

B de burro y V de baca 🐮

[@orfrisbee2121]

Gracias por el video, creo que solo escuche a los chilenos pronunciando ''b'' como ''v'' en ingles pero no sé si todos en chile lo hacen

[@TheMaru666]

Pero ellos usan ese sonido para v o b en determinadas posiciones , en las que se usaría la b " suave " , no como sonido específico de la v.

[@investmentgammler4550]

I prefer to make a clear destinction between b and v and pronounce the b always as [b] and the v always as [v]. It just makes more sense to me, because this way I can remember the orthography better. And if the old spanish grammarians wanted it to be pronounced like this, in cannot be that false, can it?

[@tenminutespanish]

@@investmentgammler4550 Spanish merged b and v well over a millennium ago. You can choose to do what you want, but distinguishing between b and v increases the foreignness of your accent.