Who said I am required to use the same definition of terms as the court. They call it driving, I call it traveling. Driving is a commercial term, and I don't haul passengers or freight for hire. Not to mention Kent v. Dulles 357 U.S. 116, 125- 127( 1958) and || Am. Jur. ( 1st) Constitutional law section 329, p1135. and as far as court goes, FRC V. GE. 281 U.S. 464; KELLER V. P.E. 261 U.S. 428 I STAT 138-178. And it's pretty much a guarantee that the "judge" nor the " prosecutor " either one has a letter from congress giving them written permission to hold public office which is required by law for anyone working for a foreign corporation, and anyone who excepts a title of nobility. All bar members work for a foreign corporation ( for the queen of England) and all bar members have a title of nobility. But no written permission from congress to hold public office and so it's not a real court then. I thought traffic laws and courts only applies to united states citizens anyway?