Exponential Distribution

[@somethingironical]

Thanks so much for posting up these videos. They are an incredibly helpful supplement, and you have a really clear way of teaching things.... I am really looking forward to some new videos soon!

[@ajwilhelm7522]

I am curious to know if you are planning on putting any more of these videos out any time in the near future.

[@lewisibe-okosobo2676]

Thanks, I have benefited immensely

[@rayraystinz]

This is incredibly clear, thank you!

[@ConnerDKnox]

Sure! If you don't do the trick that he does, the integral is 1/lambda*e^(-lambda*x) evaluated from 0 to infinity. The limit of that function as x approaches infinity is 0, which we see from it approaching 1/infinity. We must then evaluate the lower limit and *subtract* it (I think this may be where you made a mistake) and we end up subtracting -1/lambda(1/e^0) and since we are subtracting a negative it becomes just 1/lamda*1 = 1/lambda. Hope that helps!

[@SIRMAPANDAONLINE]

Good work, Sir 👏

[@brianmccullough2420]

great video helped me a lot looking back on my lecture notes while doing my homework problem set

[@akothjackline5612]

kudozz am very greatful hope for more under distibutions

[@Xu_Explores]

This is really helpful! Thanks

[@30daysofabs28]

why is dx replaced with -1/λ?

[@cronos6890]

Really good video, thank you

[@taylorperez160]

Great video!

[@grimlazy4537]

at 9:00 , what will be the result for [X/e^(lambda*X)] when limits are from negative infinity to zero??

[@StatCourses]

why negative infinity to zero? the support of exponential distribution is (0, infinity)

[@JLucy25003]

helped me a lot. Thank you

[@danaivanova4074]

At 14:45, why is the lamba negative?

[@DappuDon]

Because if you differentiating w.r.t "t" following chain rule coefficient of t is -1 thats why.

[@leobrook4018]

can you further show how exponential distribution can be written as a member of exponential family

[@yogeshagnihotri1313]

Sir make video on hypergeometric distribution

[@mashhoodahmad6101]

Dear Sir Please tell how can integrate of Likelihood function of exponential dist.

[@saklinsk4618]

Thank you sir . :)) . .. ...

[@StatCourses]

The integral at 10:49 is the same as the one solved between 1:48 and 2:56 .

[@krishnaiyer2556]

excellent

[@LycoanOfSeven]

sorry my math is a little bit rusty but could someone tell me why at 10:49 isn't the result negative one over lambda? I thought when you integrate (e to the power of a negative constant times x) the result should be (e to the power of a negative constant times x over the negative constant)? Sorry for the messy question but it's kinda hard asking a math question in comment. :)

[@sajidkcn]

i think the same...

[@srinivasulujogi4285]

Thank you

[@evansbentum9448]

Thank you so much

[@LycoanOfSeven]

O.o Yeah I think I forgot to bring in the negative sign or I reversed the terms and took 1/lambda[(-1) - 0]. Everything makes sense now. Thanks~! :D

[@Headhunter0880]

what is pdf precious?

[@30daysofabs28]

probability distributuin function

[@afriglobe6201]

Thnks'

[@ajwilhelm7522]

Ahh the mathematician in me really hates you skipping the limits in your improper integral...