Finite Element Method 1D Problem with simplified solution (Direct Method)

For 1D Tapered bar or self weight problem refer following video
• Finite Element Method ...
Correction
sigma 2 = 50 MPa
sigma 3 = 100 MPa

[@guyone7151]

when this video explained it better than my prof ever did throughout the entire semester

[@balogunrachael7504]

Well explained Thanks Stress 1=150mpa Stress 2 = 50mpa Stress 3= 100mpa Thanks so much

[@prashantilalashettar8288]

this is nice video for basic learner but stress2 valu 50N/mm2 and stress3 valu 100N/mm2 its ok manage able thank you for good explanation

[@skb-d4u]

thank you sir, very clear and concise explanation 👍 but the last two stresses values are 50 MPa and 100.262 MPa

[@aaryadevale1080]

i missed the lecture and i again learned it completely here, great teaching.

[@panda7455]

Stress 2 - 50 Stress 3 - 99.9 (or) 100

[@abdullahsonde6296]

stress 3 = 100.267

[@gaminglifeandeducationalvi9088]

How

[@balogunrachael7504]

Same with me

[@anshu7221]

Yes stress2 is 50Mpa And stress 3 is 100Mpa

[@flexxytainment]

Love your work, great teaching.Thanks!!!

[@maheshwarthan3005]

You are the best compared to our professor

[@yaniv16]

Very nice explanation! Thank you mate:👍

[@haridass.mmce-apmech5008]

Good approach to learners for ID problem..

[@drtamalpramanick6833]

In stress calculation, how [B]= 1/L [-1 1] is coming? Basically how the row vector [-1 1] is coming? Kindly clarify.

[@bhaktigarje2651]

Sir from where this formula is derived? (E/L1)[-1 1]{d3 d4}

[@rohankute4255]

Greatly Explained. Thank You!

[@offroutemasti285]

A coordinate is called simple natural coordinate if the values are between -1 and 1. That's why may be [B] matrix value is [-1 1].

[@knowledgewith90shoomans97]

what we will do when we ask to consider two elements for each bar

[@chaiturockzz2937]

Nice explanation bro, Thank you❣️

[@vamikrishnayadav2688]

Oho...kuchuuu

[@anamlicha143]

stress 2 =50 MpA and stress 3 =100.26MPA

[@nikhilgavali6964]

Great!! Understood very well

[@ammarshaikh4054]

31:10 correct ans is sigma 2 = 50N/mm sir

[@mr.kpadmanadham550]

Well explained..concept is appreciable thank u

[@Catloverss95]

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[@yutzmotorspvt.ltd.9145]

Great 👍 work Thank you sir

[@nataliecheng4956]

thank uu!! ure so helpful

[@rajashekar8617]

Clear Explanation sir Thank uh ❤️🙏

[@saroj4736]

which book you are reffering nice work

[@90malouyi]

Thanks so much continue🇮🇶🌸🌸

[@fishhushh4546]

Tqqq so much sirrr 🎉🎉🎉🎉

[@taifshams]

Area 1 equals area 2 must be 100 mm square right since we have divided that body in 2 elements? I'm confused here.

[@bhanukatakamsetti7105]

It's cross-sectional area , not surface area

[@taifshams]

@@bhanukatakamsetti7105 I c. Thanks mate.

[@AbhishekNikam-xh5rs]

Very well explained. Thank you.

[@hasithaeranga8302]

clearly explaied .. thank u

[@tictac3711]

Thank you. God bless

[@DominatingSheggz]

Nice explanation. Thanks

[@wasimuddinpatel2941]

Can you explain Sigma 2 calculation cause I am getting 50 N/mm²

[@simhadrisimha9861]

Super explanation sir

[@prasadtikhande973]

Thank you sir

[@Saminhajilou]

well explained

[@ayenewyihune]

Great video, thanks

[@rk.ppt.tutorials]

Thank you sir... ❤

[@MissPiggyM976]

Well done!

[@nothingtoxicated5937]

Excellent sir

[@vamikrishnayadav2688]

Osm explanation broo u rock ittt

[@littlesemo5734]

it's great. thanks a lot👍

[@areshrocks1894]

Excellent 👍👍👍

[@parvinderhr4946]

Good sir 👍

[@roshanpatel4216]

Helpful tutorial

[@freegaming2837]

Thanks 👍

[@himanshuroy5397]

EQN mode is not showing in my calculator

[@onyiboemmanuel6060]

Thanks a lot Sir.

[@hassankhalil9184]

Thank you so much :)

[@GIMEMadhuram]

thank u ,this was helpful

[@Xtravias]

Bro can you do tutorial with FEM 2D Problem??

[@360dcad]

Yes I will do it shortly

[@cabdirashidcabdullahi8990]

thanks engr

[@kiranp7047]

in my problem i got 2*2 and 2*1 .. then how to use calci ?

[@Catloverss95]

kzbin.info/www/bejne/i3m1oK1oo86iibc

[@venuakash8456]

Thanks bhai

[@5334n]

thank u sir

[@kaushikhegde2536]

Good one👍🏻

[@ProfSDBagg]

Nice content

[@techvijay1653]

Bro which university you belong?

[@omishtamwar]

Great explained ✨👍🏻

[@royaladcakes6227]

sir calsi me ans 10 raise ti 3 aa raha he

[@mihirshah2568]

How can i find displacement of nodes without calculator

[@413_mdrahuljangid5]

bro u did calculation mistake while calculating stress in element 2 & 3

[@mahfuzulislam8944]

nice

[@errasomlathandathorrurwara729]

Where is 4×d1 value

[@EDDIESHEARMAN]

pretty epic video

[@prashanthkona3812]

Nice explanation 👍

[@Reveal_Facts]

😃

[@ExplorerKrishna2718]

What is that D stands for

[@360dcad]

d stands for displacement

[@PABLO-sx9uy]

sir can u post softcopy of those papers

[@sandeepdeepu8534]

But can u solve the answer also in calculator so that it will be easy U r stress 2 and 3 answer is wrong bro .....

[@nithinscorpio]

yeah bro, I was struck there for half an hour

[@Pavya_hidden_talent]

Sir L1L2=200sir

[@georgedimitriou1036]

Very, very, bad English, not possible to understand...

[@AnowarHussain-tr3gd]

Very slow

[@ExplorerKrishna2718]

Your pronounsation not clear

[@yourstudent66]

Very correct explanation 👍

[@offroutemasti285]

In stress calculation, how [B]= 1/L [-1 1] is coming? Basically how the row vector [-1 1] is coming? Kindly clarify.

[@pandeydurgesh7164]

in order to change the 1/L in matrix form it was multiplied by identity matrix to accommodate the calculation in matrix form, basically [-1 1] is identity matrix.

[@siddharthupadhyay4246]

Thank you sir

[@amit95gupta]

Thanks sir.

[@traju7622]

Thanks 😊