I tried an "alternative method" and...it's more work :)

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[@peterhawes9680]

The simple way to solve this is to multiply top and bottom by e^(-x) so then the derivative of the denominator (1 + e^(-x)) equals minus the numerator e^(-x). So the answer is -ln(1 + e^(-x))

[@owlsschoolofmath9732]

Hi Peter. Yep I think that's how I would do it and its quicker & easier for sure.

[@felipefred1279]

I like to work with hyperbolic functions

[@owlsschoolofmath9732]

me too :)

[@YourWrongImRight933]

I derived this function… My name is Chris Hanson.. I Call it Hansons theory. It needs to go in every textbook

[@gurman6625]

Dude like why complicate it , just add and subtract 1 from the integrand , and merge the integrand with (-1) and let the +1 be alone , there you go jaut use U sub now