Interest rate risk management (1) Part 2 - ACCA (AFM) lectures

[@Abbas-oj6ne]

Interest Rate Futures: 15:00 - 19:10 wonderfully explained 👌

[@blackm9063]

Many thanks for this Golden lectures.. Blessed

[@achuthanunnirajendrakumar6135]

Hello John, I was just curious as to why open tuition material is available for free. What was the reasoning behind choosing this particular business model? Is it driven by philanthropic ideals? Thank you.

[@luisasolispuello4964]

Excellent lecture.

[@simrandeepsingh3802]

You said that that we divide (Sell - Buy) by 1/4 and 1/100= 1/400. Why exactly do we divide it by these two numbers? Thanks!

[@opentuition]

If you want out tutor to answer then please ask in the free Paper AFM Ask the Tutor Forum on our free website. Our tutors do not monitor questions posted here but they always answer questions posted in our Ask the Tutor Forums.

[@brian-kt1rc]

How come it is divided by 100x4 and not by 92x4?

[@brian-kt1rc]

Thanks for all the lectures by the way

[@opentuition]

@@brian-kt1rc I am not sure where you are getting 92 from. We divide by 100 because it is quoted as a %. We divide it by 4 because it is an annual percent but we calculate it for 3 months (because they are 3 month futures).

[@brian-kt1rc]

Thank you for the quick response, I was not expecting it. I understand that the denominator is multiplied by 4, but I thought that the futures price that was originally locked in was 92 and so the change of 92-90 divided then by the futures price of 92 as a base or denominator to get a % change

[@opentuition]

@@brian-kt1rc No. The change of 2 means that the gain or loss is 2% of the amount, and so 2/100 :-)

[@brian-kt1rc]

@@opentuition thanks!

[@questionmarks5267]

baby example :D

[@opentuition]

Of curse it is - that is why there are three more lectures in this series!