James Newheiser, Jr. | What Does the Bible Say About Divorce and Remarriage? | TGC Q&A

[@lanceallenmcginnis1105]

5 years later and I’m still hurting so much because my wife divorced me because of “abuse”. I love Jesus with all my heart. I am doing my best to be humble, teachable, repentant and learn to be a better husband. The third reason given here is abuse. Abuse however seems to be such a slippery slope and so subjective. Anna my ex genuinely felt abuse. However by most people standards my actions would not be considered abuse. Even abuse experts disagree on what abuse is. I feel terrible. I feel great great regret and remorse. But she has been counseled that abuse is reason for divorce. She’s now in a dating relationship with another man. It feels like adultery to me. The scripture seems to indicate that it is. I feel like I have a proper jealousy. Like father God has for our undivided love. I’m so confused and so hurt. I feel like when we are asking the question “is divorce for abuse OK?” we’re asking the wrong question. Lord please restore my marriage!

[@philipbuckley759]

you are correct about one thing....false teaching leads to a sinful response, ergo, many are in for a rude awakening, literally, on judgement day...

[@grant2149]

Update...

[@davidfriesen9512]

Thank you for this video brother. I didn't know that my wife was gay when I married her in 1996. I always wondered why she was uncomfortable with sex and why she refused to have sex with me almost the entire 25 years that we were together. She told the counsellor that she was gay 15 years into the marriage. After that she tried to chase me out of her life by abusive language towards me and being a control freak not only of my life but of my money. So in December of 2022 I left her. She has had at least one lesbian girl friend however it was a long distance relationship and it fell apart because she was verbally abusive even to that lesbian. I lay in my bed a lonely man and I mourn my loss. I continually ask God for a wife even though I don't have grounds to divorce and remarry. I wish I could buy your book but I don't know how to buy things online. GOD HELP ME !

[@philipbuckley759]

so we expand the definition of terms....such as being abandoned.....seems to be a red flag....

[@FeWolf]

Pretty clear: Matthew 5:31-32 31 “It has been said, ‘Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.’ 32 But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, makes her the victim of adultery, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery. Now the Bible does talk very much about Separation, but it does not say remarriage. God said, I do not change, Man says I change to what suits me wants and needs.

[@ajlouviere202]

The divorce and remarriage for adultery doctrine is based solely on the supposed guilt of the wife in Matthew 5:32, and Matthew 19:9. However, the wife in Matthew 5:31-32 is clearly not guilty of fornication because the Jews that Jesus was speaking to were still living under the law, and if fornication was discovered, there was a moral obligation to report the offender according to Deuteronomy 22:13-24. The wife, who would have been found guilty of fornication, was subsequently stoned to death, according to the law, which had still governed the Jews up until Christ's death on the cross. The same for a woman caught in adultery, according to Leviticus 20:10. How could a wife, guilty of fornication, or adultery, under the law of Moses, be given a writing of divorcement and be caused to commit adultery with whosoever marries her, that is divorced? Jesus is clear, in these examples, that the wife is not guilty of fornication, but is still caused to commit adultery if she marries another man now that she is divorced. This is the only way that Matthew 5:31-32, and Matthew 19:9 keep harmony with Romans 7:2-3, and 1 Corinthians 7:39. Unlike the synoptic gospels of Mark and Luke, which were written to evangelize the Gentiles, Matthew was written to the Jews, and has of 24 characteristics that identify it as intended for the house of Israel. The ancient Jews called the betrothed (engaged) "husband" and "wife" according to Deuteronomy 22:23-24, Matthew 1:18-25, and Luke 2:5-7. Deuteronomy 24:1-4 (Moses's precept of divorce and remarriage) was never for fornication or adultery. Allowing those guilty of fornication and adultery to remain living and become a prospect for remarriage was against the law of Moses in Deuteronomy 22:13-24 and Leviticus 20:10, which commanded that those who were found guilty of fornication and adultery be put away from Israel, and stoned to death. The law of Moses was not given to the world, only to the Jews. From the exodus, to Christ's death on the cross, the law of Moses governed the Jewish people. But when Jesus died on the cross, he caused the Jews to be dead to the law of Moses so they could be joined to Christ under a New Covenant. This is what Jesus's fulfillment of the law of Moses, including Deuteronomy 24:1-4 (Moses's precept of divorce and remarriage), means. Paul gave several warnings to Christian believers against keeping the law of Moses over following Christ and his commands under the New Covenant with Christ. Keeping the whole law is no longer possible for those in Israel and that is why Christ prophesied that the temple would be destroyed. These scriptures make it clear that if you choose the law over Christ, that you must keep the whole law: Romans 7:4, Galatians 3:1-9, Galatians 3:10-29, Galatians 4:1-7, Galatians 4:21-31, and Galatians 5:1-15. Being unequally yoked to unbelievers is not a cause for divorce, once two become one-flesh in a covenant of marriage, according to 1 Corinthians 7:12-14. Many one-flesh covenant marriages between unbelievers are recognized by God in the scriptures, most notably the marriage covenants between Herodias and King Herod's brother Philip, Potiphar and his wife, Ahab and Jezebel, and Ruth to her deceased husband Mahlon by Boaz when he took her to be his wife. Some are teaching that 1 Corinthians 7:15 implies that those who are abandoned by the unbeliever, are "no longer bound" in a one-flesh covenant of marriage. The reason this is in conflict is due to the way they word it, which gives it an entirely different meaning, and context. 1 Corinthians 7:15, says, "15But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace." As you can see, the actual scripture says "not under bondage," which means that the husband or wife is not enslaved to sin with the unbelieving spouse, and is free to worship Christ in peace. Subsequent translations have changed the words to imply that they nullify the marriage covenant, when this is not at all the case. The issue that this creates is with 1 Corinthians 7:10-11, which says, "10And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband: 11But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife." As you can see, those who claim 1 Corinthians 7:15 has the Apostle Paul giving permission to remarry do not understand that the abandoned husband in 1 Corinthians 7:11 is expected to also remain unmarried, in order to be reconciled with his wife. The theory that 1 Corinthians 7:15 nullifies two as being one-flesh in marriage puts the Apostle Paul directly at odds with Christ, by implying that he has issued an opposing command. Some also teach that 1 Corinthians 7:27-28 is referring to both divorced men, and virgin women, and not exclusively to men and women (virgins) who have never been married. This has been falsely taught for some time in churches as referring to anyone who is not currently in a marriage, which, for them, also includes those who are divorced. This is a very false assumption, and puts these verses in a different context, that is at odds with both the teachings of Christ and the apostle Paul. We see Paul refer to virgins, which signifies the unmarried who have never before been wed, which is the proper context here. We see Paul saying clearly that it is good for virgins, which is also speaking to never before wed men here, "that it is good for a man so to be." He goes on to say, "Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife." Who is he referring to here? Men who, like himself, have never married. The word "bound", in these verses, is a clear reference to betrothal (engagement) and not to a one-flesh covenant of marriage. The ancient Jews were considered bound as husband and wife during the betrothal (espousal/engagement) before becoming one-flesh in a covenant of marriage, through consummation. This is affirmed by the context of the term "bound" seen in Numbers 30:14-16. The Jewish couples in ancient Israel, who were betrothed (engaged) were also bound together until death, either by execution for fornication, or by other causes. Then Paul says, "But and if thou marry, thou has not sinned", which is who? The men who had never married in the congregation at Corinth. So he begins with verses 25-26 speaking exclusively to men that have never married. Paul then says, "and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned", which is speaking directly about virgin women who have never been married, within the congregation, not divorced women. Notice that verse 34 says, "There is difference also between a wife and a virgin. The unmarried woman careth for the things of the Lord, that she may be holy both in body and in spirit: but she that is married careth for the things of the world, how she may please her husband." Paul speaks plainly when he says "there is a difference between a wife and a virgin." Paul goes on to say, "But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry." This is speaking of a virgin who has become of age to bear children when it says, "let them marry." This is a clear command, to a single man, who has taken a virgin to be his wife. Paul then says, "Nevertheless he that standeth stedfast in his heart, having no necessity, but hath power over his own will, and hath so decreed in his heart that he will keep his virgin, doeth well." This is referring again to the single man who decides it is better not to marry, but to stay betrothed (engaged), under the present distress, by saying that he "hath so decreed in his heart that he will keep his virgin." Paul then says, "So then he that giveth her in marriage doeth well; but he that giveth her not in marriage doeth better", which again means single men, in the congregation, who have betrothed a wife do well if they marry, and those who choose not to allow their virgin brides do better, under the current climate. For more proper context of the word "bound", let's look further down in this chapter to verse 39, which says, "39The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord" (1 Corinthians 7:39). For so long, these scriptures, between verses 25-38, have been twisted and used to enable divorce and remarriage, by wayward churches and teachers, and have caused many to stumble and to be trapped in unlawful unions. The use of the woman at the well, in regard to marriage, falsely implies that Christ was endorsing remarriage after a divorce. This teaching is in defiance of Matthew 22:23-28, which shows a woman who had been widowed seven times, and entered into each subsequent marriage without any scriptural conflicts with God's law of marriage (one-flesh covenant) seen in Genesis 2:23-24. Mark 10:1-12 is the same biblical record of Matthew 19:1-12, which both record Christ's teaching that day beyond the Jordan. There is no mention of the words "fornication", "writing of divorcement", or "divorced" in Mark's Gospel, because Mark was not written to the Jews (as Matthew's Gospel was), but to evangelize the Romans and Greeks, who had no knowledge of the law in Deuteronomy 22 or Deuteronomy 24. All of these facts draw a clear understanding that remarriage after a divorce, under the New Covenant with Christ, is a scripturally false and baseless teaching. Please use wisdom when living in any situation against what the scriptures command.

[@FightForTruthMedia]

THIS GUY IS THE ABSOLUTE MAN! He inspired me to create my own Christian KZbin Channel to refute the lies of cultural Christianity! Check it out!

[@philipbuckley759]

what is this.....if his teaching does not match up, with Scripture.....then it is false....eh...

[@grant2149]

His False

[@philipbuckley759]

once again if divorce severed the covenant, we would not be here...

[@robertwooden-s1l]

my man has a lot of knowledge on the,subject

[@philipbuckley759]

if the unbeliever leaves...hmm.....this is an issue because anyone leaving is thought to be, or at least treated as if that one were an unbeliever....

[@philipbuckley759]

the exception is fornication, and abandonment is not a ground for divorce and remarriage, just not required to give up ones belief to save a marriage....

[@thegospelcoalition]

Each week, on TGC's Q&A Podcast, we’re joined by members of the TGC Council and friends who provide biblical perspective on your most pressing questions. Whatever your doubts or questions may be, this is a space where we hope to share biblical insight into life’s questions together. Learn more and subscribe TGC.org/podcasts/q-a-podcast

[@garvinsmith4555]

Therefore shall a man leave his Father and his Mother and shall cleave unto his wife; and they shall be one flesh. And what God has joined together let no man put asunder... This is the will of the Lord! And unto the married I command, yet not I, let not the wife depart from her husband: but and if she departs, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife... 1 Corinthians 7:10-11... This is what the Lord has commanded... Question: why did the Lord allow his people to divorce because of sexual immorality, and then, give such a command??? We need to understand this, in 1 Corinthians 7:10-11, the Lord is saying to us, that even if there is sexual immorality, the wife is not to depart and the husband is not to divorce her... Moses is the one who introduced divorce and the Lord allowed divorce until the time of restoration. Jesus said Moses allowed the people of God to divorce because of the hardness of their hearts. Jesus also allowed divorce until the promise he made to remove the old heart and replace it with the new is fulfilled, to remove the heart of stone which is the root cause of divorce, and replace it with the heart of flesh... Today, the root cause of divorce is still the hardness of the heart... There are no other causes... Any believer who wants to divorce needs to examine his or her own heart, failure to do so will result in Adultery.

[@philipbuckley759]

do a word study.....dont you know that Erasmus, in the time of Luther ,changed the term, from fornication to immorality....

[@philipbuckley759]

you did not address the issue of the ones divorced, without Biblical grounds and have remarried....what course of action is required....remain, or leave that relationship, that the Bible calls adultery...

[@bradanderson4202]

This person is taking the supposed exceptions and expanding them to include anything. He talked about fnances that is richer or poorer. The verry ature f divrce gors along with remmariage. The marriage always says remmariage is adultery. Continued. God would never give a divorcee another spouse thats an exception

[@philipbuckley759]

you seem to have expanded from one to three the exceptions, for divorce and remarriage.....so it is necessary to say....this is a false teaching...

[@bradanderson4202]

Horrible. Nightmare

[@philipbuckley759]

this speaker seems to have one false teaching, after another....