Standard Average European: The European Sprachbund

[@georgios_5342]

I just realized how massive of an effect this has had on Greek. Most of these didn't exist in ancient Greek, and have always seemed to me as "appearing out of the blue".

[@SantiagoG18]

True.

[@georgios_5342]

@@philiphoyle the reduplication of the Parekeimenos is another one that is nowadays gone, replaced by the "have" formation.

[@SantiagoG18]

@@philiphoyle Hey, can I know why do you learn ancient Greek? :) Is it in university or something?

[@tdoge]

@@SantiagoG18 maybe a Classics major/history at university

[@SantiagoG18]

@@philiphoyle What is your native language? excepting accents and prepositions your spanish is so good :) Thanks for answering.

[@young2k15]

I would love to learn see a video about the effects of native American languages on American English.

[@CodexArgenteus]

Yes please; as a Canadian this would be fascinating as well since I'm sure there are some connections between Native American languages & Canadian English & French.

[@unapatton1978]

I would love to see more on non-Indoeuropean languages. My guess is, there is not as much material on them.

[@polemeros]

Given how widely separated and different their language families are, I suspect that the influence on EuroAmerican languages would be in vocabulary only, rather than any syntactical influence.

[@young2k15]

I would also expect there have been to be a significant contribution to modern American English pronunciation. But I don't know how that could be demonstrated.

[@CameronM1cedout2kold]

This is an awesome idea

[@Erik_Emer]

1:54 Norwegian, Swedish, Icelandic: You've been kicked out of the group! Danish: What!? For who? Czech: Ahoj

[@ivanskyttejrgensen7464]

The graph is not exhaustive. My first thought was that Danish was left out because it didn't fit nicely into the groups (eg. West-Jutlandic has a definite article while rest of Danish marks definitiveness with a suffix), but in the paper "The European linguistic area: Standard Average European" Danish is covered. Faroese isn't shown either.

[@dd2441]

Rusha: Zdarova

[@johnhooyer3101]

I feel like this is a parody of that _Raid_ ad that I keep on getting.

[@honeyfromthebee]

@@ivanskyttejrgensen7464 The map would probably start to look different if we started taking all dialects into account, so as West Jutlandic is not standard Danish, I think we can assume that it was oversight. Danish does, however, fit in along with Swedish and Norwegian here, as I'm sure you already know.

[@aidanhunter3687]

@@ivanskyttejrgensen7464 Hvad mener du "exhaustive?" Kan du giver os en definition eller oversættning?

[@T33K3SS3LCH3N]

As a German with English as a second languages, these differences really were very noticable when getting into Japanese. They make up a large part of what makes it feel so alien at first: 1. Articles don't exist, although there are article-like expressions that can indicate the definiteness. The anime title "A Certain Scientific Railgun" makes a good example, with "a certain" ("to aru") being one such term. 2. "The man who drives the car" is phrased as "The car-driving man". Verbs can simply be put in front of a noun to act as an adjective, no pronouns necessary. 3. There isn't really a past perfect, you just use the past. 4. Linking verbs are much rarer. Past passive is formed by just piling on endings on a verb. "Was stolen" is formed from ubau (to steal) -> ubawareru (is stolen) -> ubawareta (was stolen). 5. It matches up fairly well with English here, not with German/SAE("mother child's hair washes"). 6. Verbs are negated, nouns aren't. Rather than "nobody came", it's more like "whoever camen't". Most words for "every" automatically mean "none" if combined with a negative verb. 7. Comparisons use particles that can't be translated direclty into either English or German. For similarity it uses "hodo": "I hodo big" -> "as big as me". For disparities "yori": "I yori big" -> "bigger than me". 8. Japanese doesn't just drop pronouns, it drops entire nouns. And objects. Rather than say "I love you", it's more like "like" or "do love". You can include the object there (typically the other person's name), but the "I" is almost always omitted and would even sound weird. 9. Japanese has multiple words for "self" that can generally fit both roles. It barely has pronouns to begin with, but rather uses ordinary nouns for that role. And rather than Subject-Verb-Object, Japanese uses Subject-Object-Verb. This made for a good example to me that this definition of SAE seems to hold up well when compared with a totally different language, since didn't match on even a single point and highlights huge structural differences.

[@Anvilshock]

"whoever camen't - I don't think I've ever seen this translated so poetically.

[@marco.nascimento]

Thank you for that analysis! I'm beggining to learn Japanese and haven't got to past tenses etc., so this was pretty interesting to read.

[@saveggg7141]

in my region there is a Volga-Kama sprachbund which combines languages of Uralic and Turkic families such as tatar, bashkir, chuvash (turkic), udmurt, mari, moksha, komi (uralic)

[@ИжикПыжик-к6п]

povolzhie represent

[@saveggg7141]

@@ИжикПыжик-к6п Волжско-Камский Языковой Союз

[@l.u.7834]

Do you speak this language every day?

[@elimalinsky7069]

This was probably the reason why early linguists grouped Uralic and Altaic languages together as one language family. We now know they are unrelated in terms of genealogy but are instead strongly influenced by one another. Much like Korean and Japanese I suppose.

[@friisolafson5459]

Hmm, that sounds like an interesting theory, but what are the linguistic features of this 'Volga-Kama sprachbund' and do you speak one of those languages by yourself?

[@WingedBagels]

In Spanish class, I always wondered why English and Spanish use "have done" and "ha hecho" even though Old English and Latin didn't do this.

[@justinnamuco9096]

@@marinahuizar6067 what does "romance language" mean

[@eklipon1678]

Justin Namuco it means all the languages that have their base as latin like spanish french and english. The term romance i believe derives from Rome

[@ariadne_8510]

@@eklipon1678 English is a germanic language, not a romance one.

[@malcolmkealey9018]

@@marinahuizar6067 Not really, Latin is verifiably a common ancestor of all romance languages (that is, in fact, the definition of a romance language), it's just that the nearest common ancestor was vulgar Latin, not classical Latin.

[@craiga4215]

@@ariadne_8510 Technically yes. But only 26% of modern English vocabulary is of Germanic origin. Where as 58% is of romance origin through Latin and French. en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foreign_language_influences_in_English

[@FairyCRat]

I'm impressed that you found a seemingly young Frenchman who's fluent in Breton. As a French guy myself, I can tell you that very few people can speak their region's historical vernacular language. Funny thing too is that he has a very exotic-looking name, that I think I'd be more expected to find in a Celtic area of the UK than in France, since first names from regional languages are typically shunned here.

[@thomaskember4628]

I only recently discovered that my surname comes from Breton. I must have had an ancestor who migrated from the town Quimper in Brittany. I assume Quimper is the French version of Kember. This sort of thing is very common in Britain. The names of Welsh towns are very different in English from their Welsh names.

[@maxx1014]

@Evi1M4chine The French do this because they have a trauma to Germany in the east because up until the 19th century regional languages were very widespread in France and not really suppressed but after their loss in 1870 (Alsace Lorraine had hardly any native French speakers at that time although it was part of France since the 17th/18th century respectively) France feared that more provinces would be seceding like Nice region (Nizza) to Italy or Northern Catalonia to Spain. So they suppressed all regionalism to prevent more losses of the French state. French centralism isn't really the core reason of suppressing those languages.

[@varana]

@@maxx1014 That didn't start with the 1871 war, though. Attempts to promote (Parisian) French as _national_ language started already together with the general idea of a _nation_ during the French Revolution. Esp. the Jacobins were outspoken in their hostility towards dialects and non-French languages. While their policy of eradicating non-standard versions and minority languages didn't get very far, their idea of "one language for one nation" became widespread not only in France but also in other European countries like Germany or the UK. The new nation states killed a lot of linguistic variation in the 19th century (together with less intentional factors, like increased mobility and mass media). The trauma of 1871 may have intensified this process but it started much earlier.

[@maxx1014]

@@varana yes you're right, just wanted to point out that not until the last quarter of the 19th century French was not the sole language in schools, so regional languages thrived till then. Harsh oppression of minority languages started not until then. In Germany it's a little different. In that time, the Kaiserreich was only imposing German as school language and other assimilation methods in predominately Polish and Danish areas. French was not really persecuted in the Kaiserreich. And the dialects were not touched at all, which would not be possible because in that time German federalism was even further reaching than today. Only in recent times with the rise of mass media and unrestrained mobility dialects are retreating

[@klyanadkmorr]

All thru north part of Europe along from Spain to Netherlands Celtic tribes south into France lived even after the times of Rome. So duh he has a Celtic seeming name Breton is European Celts.

[@ichhassdievoll]

4:49 Das g wurde estohlen.

[@mauriceschecklstein9092]

Man kennt ihn

[@mauriceschecklstein9092]

Dein Name ist geil😂

[@ichhassdievoll]

Liebe geht raus

[@魚-c3d]

Lars-Oliver Von Ehre lmao 😂

[@macartm]

Ach cheisse ;)

[@nhgh1756]

lol 11:00 "and in german!" [silence]

[@АрнульфСтелигов]

When you're silent, It speaks. It's a part of the Contemporary Buddist Religionbund

[@elkyubi4281]

He maybe forgot to add the spoken sample

[@victorstroganov8135]

Deleted for copyright issues

[@Abbasjawad373]

As an intensifier 10:05

[@IschmarVI]

thing is, that German isn't really SVO. It is a V2-language (i.e. certain verb-specific information is required to be in the second position) but seems to be rather SOV-based outside of the V2-constraint. While many shorter sentences do show SVO word order, this isn't the case with multi-part verbs; which results in funny sentences like "Ich bin in den Zoo gegangen" (lit. "I have in the zoo gone" → "I went/have gone to the zoo".

[@flavio-viana-gomide]

One nice issue of this channel is that it brings together many people from different countries to discuss and enjoy our history and languages. A place that gathers of all nations. I hope I can be understerstood. Peace for all nations!

[@HighWideandHandsome]

@Максим Чертыков I am a native English speaker. I would say "thing" in this case. I agree with the both of you otherwise!

[@ristyanyesf7327]

Flávio issue or feature

[@ilocosmetro]

I have finals, but I think I can fit in some learning on something that I want to rather than I have to

[@ダニエル-x5d]

Never let school stop you from learning what you want to learn!

[@justinnamuco9096]

But still tho study for your finals

[@ilocosmetro]

@@justinnamuco9096 Just finished a study guide for one exam. Got two more to make. So far, so good

[@theyoshi202]

It’s funny how us humans love to do things that we decide to do but hate things we’re forced to do, even if they’re similar or even the same thing. For example, I’m watching this instead of doing French homework. Learning about languages instead of learning about a language.

[@TheMastermind729]

Same boat fam

[@dalm0312]

🇭🇺 Aw, this was heartwarming to watch 🥰 As a Hungarian I’m used to seeing my native language notoriously marked as the black sheep among all the Indoeuropean languages around that is different in so many ways. For once we can feel part of the club and realize that we DO share a lot with surrounding languages 😉

[@lumethecrow2632]

It's a black sheep because it's Uralic, not Indo-European

[@dalmasomogyi214]

@@lumethecrow2632 we know :)

[@kshitijvids]

@@lumethecrow2632 LMAO exactly

[@thelazywanderer_jt]

Even so, hungarian is refreshingly unique out of the usual European languages

[@giannifois8948]

Én és te... I know only these three words in hungarian

[@Langfocus]

Hi everyone. I hope you like the new video! There are a couple of glitches. At 4:55 the "g" on "gestohlen" somehow got deleted, so it says "estohlen" instead of "gestohlen". And at 11:00 the audio clip for "Ich liebe Sprachen" is missing. Also, for "Yo quiero" I said "I want you" but I wrote "I need you" on the screen. The screen should also say "I want you". The major source for this video was "The European linguistic area: Standard Average European" by Martin Haspelmath. You can read the original article at this link (with no login if you read it online): www.researchgate.net/publication/247869081_The_European_linguistic_area_Standard_Average_European. I normally use a lot of different sources and piece things together, but this time I used mainly this source, so I want to make sure it's recognized.

[@jsil_]

Mistakes are made man, it's indifferent to me (and many other viewers, I'd assume). Thanks for owning up to it, but I can't be bothered by some mishaps, I love your content. Have a Merry Christmas!

[@M310GL]

No problemo, ich liebe dein Videos. Salut

[@Raheem_1412-]

The way you pronounced the Arabic expression "أحبك" seems like Egyption dialect but in Classic Arabic or MSA it'll pronounced "uhibbuka" toward a male and "uhibuki" toward a single female with short vowels of course. How about making a video about South Semitic Sprachbund?

[@joja1345]

@Evi1M4chine Yah, the German speaker sounds weird. He should change the German speaker or tell him not to speak so weird

[@shyasaturtle]

Something is wrong with his accent or pronunciation.

[@JasonGeorgiouGaming]

6:33 Fun fact: In ancient Greek, there were negative pronouns with lack of verbal negation, however in modern Greek it has changed. For example the ancient Greek phrase "ἀγεωμέτρητος μηδεὶς εἰσίτω" It translates to Nobody uneducated in geometry should enter. (ἀγεωμέτρητος = uneducated in geometry μηδεὶς = nobody εἰσίτω = enter) In modern Greek it would have been "Κανένας αγεωμετρητος ας μην εισέλθει" Κανένας = no one Ας = should Μην =not Εισέλθει = enter I just found it interesting how this language evolved like this. In any case, great video, keep them coming.

[@georgios_5342]

Αυτό πάλι με την παθητική φωνή, ήταν λάθος. Αφού στα ελληνικά είναι μονολεκτική

[@thelazywanderer_jt]

... Yep I still stand by the opinion than ancient Greek is more interesting and more practical. Τα νέα ελληνικά υποφέρουν από εκτενή λεκτικό πληθωρισμό όσο προσπαθούν με τα χρόνια να γίνουν πιο απλά σε σύγκριση με τα αρχαία υποκατάστατα.

[@PyetrSkalin]

In greek there are still ουδείς ουδέποτε ουδέν that arent used with verb negation although ουδέποτε is rarely used

[@alwaysuseless]

Wow, this will make learning languages in or out of the Sprachbund even more fun! And becoming more aware of similarities and differences always makes learning easier! You present very clearly important concepts that many of us will now benefit from by being more than just vaguely aware of: Which languages, in effect, have have and how long have they had it? Which languages acknowledge that even the President himself may talk to himself? Etc. I will be re-watching this one! In increasing order of this fan's fluency: Merci beaucoup. Muchas gracias. Vielen Dank. Thanks so much!

[@GerHanssen]

Small error: Dutch should be included in 9. the intensifier reflexive differentiation. 1. De voorzitter gaf * zelf* een voordracht. 2. Hij houdt van *zichzelf*.

[@quinnab89]

I can confirm.

[@peterandersson3812]

That’s also how Swedish (and, I believe, Norwegian) makes the differentiation: ”själv” and ”sig själv”. Obvious cognates to Dutch. ”Sig” on its own is the generic Swedish reflexive pronoun. (I thing ”zich” fills that role in Dutch.)

[@dreasbn]

i assume there is a difference between: "de voorzitter zelf gag een voordracht" and your number 1. sentence... in your sentence it might not be considered an "intensifier". The intensifier would probably have to be directely after the noun. And would it make sense to just say: hij houdt van sich. I assume yes. But do not know exactly...

[@CharlesWMock]

I don't think you're right here. 'zichzelf' is the object of 'van,' not the verb itself (houden). Reflexive would be 'hij scheert zich,' for example, or 'zij hebben zich gewassen.'

[@DezZolation]

@@CharlesWMock then his case still stands, the intensifier and reflexive are different in Dutch. Could anyone give me an example of (5) the dative external possessors in Dutch? Would be greatly appreciated

[@andrewmathiasromania6449]

Salut! Imi place mult canalul tau de KZbin! Salutari de la Brasov, Romania! 🇷🇴😊

[@vxern2443]

Si ție salutari din Polonia de Sud ( deși locuiesc in uk :D )

[@65fhd4d6h5]

I just realized that I understand written Romanian.

[@andreiandy9227]

Salutare ! Romania power ! 💪

[@andrewmathiasromania6449]

@@andree1991 yes. That's right. :)

[@andrewmathiasromania6449]

@@65fhd4d6h5 where are you from?

[@alanr4447a]

1:57 "Latvian, Lithuanian, Russian, Ukrainian, Polish, Hungarian, Bulgarian, Slovenian, Serbian, and Croatian..." begins to sound like a song!

[@fengyuanwang6654]

2:40 Paul: All the Romance languages have both definite and indefinite articles Latin: but ... Just for a laugh 😂

[@nivellen1168]

Latin isn't a romance language. All languages which developed from Latin are romance languages.

[@seid3366]

Latin is an Italic language

[@lumethecrow2632]

@@seid3366 Latino-Faliscian

[@konradhalman5104]

To me Latin seems closer to Slavic languages than the Romance languages. no articles, inflection by case, no perfect and continuous/progressive tenses

[@GvonderQ]

As to point 3. Latvian has three simple tenses (present, past and future), and three compound perfect constructions: present perfect, past perfect, future perfect. We have quite huge russian speaker community here in Latvia and over last decades (after collapse of the Soviet Union) they started to speak latvian quite well. Sometimes only lack of perfect forms in russian allows to detect that speaker's mother tongue is actually russian. One simple example. Russians say in latvian - Es redzēju to filmu (I saw that film), while latvians ALWAYS say - Es esmu redzējis to filmu (I have seen that film).

[@tonyhawk94]

You should do a video about "how Frankish is French", there are many features inherited from the Frankish language (including vocab and phonology) that make the French special among the Romance languages. :)

[@kekeke8988]

A lot of Frankish vocab is found throughout other Romance languages to. For example, blanco / blanc / bianco comes from Frankish Blankaz, guerra / guerre comes from Frankish, "Werra", and there are probably a lot more examples.

[@ЖекаИванов-ш5б]

Yes, would be nice (yeah, I dropped a pronoun)

[@bhavikkakkad7827]

Oui oui s'il vous plait

[@jayc1139]

Yes, yes, I've noticed it's odd, especially in its phonology. One person on reddit 'claimed' that French phonology is the way it is now because OF the Franks. They basically said that...when the Roman Empire fell, and the Franks were migrating/invaded into Gaul...they came across many people that spoke Latin. Because the Franks were outnumbered, the Franks tried learning Latin, but not well. This resulted in a possible 'import' of Old Franconian/Germanic phonemes like the gutteral R sound, the 'zh' like the 's' in 'measure', and also the amount of nasal vowels. Now, it's a curious thought, but it's speculative of course. Tho it is an interesting theory. Also, I suppose if it's true in some aspect, it would mean the Franks, of whom did, essentially ruled over the Latin speakers, and being that 'rulees' tend to adopt and try to speak like the 'rulers', hence, how English developed for instance...it's possible the native Gauls tried to speak like the Franks.

[@benedettobruno1669]

14 December 2019, Palermo, Sicily. When KZbin recommends a Langfocus video you already know you are going to learn amazing things you didn't know about and that you wouldn't find out even if you spent 5 hours a day closed in a library reading dozens of books.

[@sigma4805]

11:01 accidentally left out the German clip

[@parmaxolotl]

I thought it was a dramatic pause

[@danivolynsky3273]

We shouldn't overlook an immensely comprehensive work that was put into this bit!!!!!💪💪💪

[@julia448]

Idioms are the same or similar: with a heavy heart z ciężkim sercem (polish) schweren Herzens (german) unter dem Deckemantel (german) pod płaszczykiem (polish) (under the guise of) Augenblick Ogenblik Mgnienie oka aus der Rolle fallen wypaść z roli eine Rolle spielen - keine Rolle spielen grać rolę - nie grać żadnej roli the same adjectives: german - polish tief - głęboki (deep) tiefes Rot - głęboka czerwień tief geruhrt - głęboko poruszony tief gefroren - głęboko zamrożony deep night - głęboka noc

[@mikolajtrzeciecki1188]

Can it be that the many idioms common to German and Polish result from the historical political dominance of Germany over much of Polish native speaking area (i.e. zabor pruski)?

[@DrWhom]

@@mikolajtrzeciecki1188 Labourers and soldiers, fishermen travelling all over Europe.

[@Dziki_z_Lasu]

@@mikolajtrzeciecki1188 No, rather archeologicaly proven extensive trade contacts and mixing between Slavic and Germanic tribes since 2-nd century BCE that resulted in fully mixed Sukow-Dziedzice culture in 6th century CE, the direct predecessor of the early Polish state and the later contacts. Thanks to the some Austrian with a stupid moustache, also earlier German bullying by the pseudoscience, we completely ignored that fact and now you are amazed how German is similar to Polish when you learn it. tu leży ten pies pogrzebany - da liegt der Hund begraben.

[@ltu42]

​@@mikolajtrzeciecki1188 But many of these also apply to many other European languages. I don't think it's strictly due to political dominance.

[@cathaloronain796]

The Irish passive isn’t a combination of verbs but rather it’s own tense called the “Saor Briathar” and I personally find it so useful

[@rmdodsonbills]

I first heard of the concept of a sprachbund in a video by Native Lang about a sprachbund among indigenous languages in southern Mexico/Central America (or perhaps wider than that, into what is now the southern US). The focus of the video was primarily on shared features between Nahuatl (Aztec) and Maya but those aren't the only members.

[@teodortotev1113]

In Bulgarian: 1. there are both definite and indefinite articles in Bulgarian - 'човек' -- 'човека' -- 'човекът'. 3 . there is a "have perfert" construction in Bulgarian, but just like German and French with verbs for movement, it is actually "to be + past tense" - 'бях дошъл' , 'бил съм дошъл'

[@taratutkin]

Is it Plusquamperfect instead of "have perfect"? Russian also has it from Old-slavonic. Read about Plusquamperfect tense on Wikipedia

[@tgunderwood8399]

I love this video. I have never heard of this and lived in Belgium and Austria. I speak English, French and German and I never saw these features as unusual!

[@lionkaliban2237]

The 8 point is wrong for Russian. We can say "Я люблю тебя" (I love you), but we also can say "Люблю тебя", without "Я" (I). Another example: - Что ты делаешь? (What are you doing?) - Книгу читаю ( I am reading a book.) But there isn't the word "Я", what means "I".

[@JohnDoesSports]

It's a really nice feature in a language since the verb conjugation already tells you what pronoun is associated with the verb.

[@lionkaliban2237]

@@JohnDoesSports yes, just a little saving of time. In Russian it works only in present and future time. But, however, we usually use pronouns at all times.

[@iliayasny]

It's common in the vernacular language, even in the past tense - Что сегодня делал? - Ходил в магазин

[@lionkaliban2237]

@@iliayasnyyes, of course we talk in this way. But without a context we can't understand, which pronoun should be here. It can be "Ты ходил в магазин" or also "Я ходил в магазин". But in perfect and future verb show, which pronoun is absent.

[@nikolaspasenovic7798]

@@lionkaliban2237 same with Serbian ја хоћу јабуку=хоћу јабуку, я хочу яблоку, хочу яблоку :)

[@rationsofrationality2510]

Standard Average European sounds a lot like my friend group

[@MattMorgasmo]

❤️

[@patrickmullen5124]

I often think about the European Sprachraum but I have never imagined such a quantifiable treatise on the subject. Thank you. Gut gemacht...

[@benlaterreur9799]

6:20 In french, the main negation word is actually "ne". It's true that we don't use it that much anymore, but in correct french, it has to be the "ne" that gives to the sentence its negative sense. This is why "l'a-t-il jamais vu ?" and "ne l'a-t-il jamais vu ?" are two different sentences. The first one means "did he ever see it?" and the second one means "did he never see it?" In this case, french works exactly like italian : "Lo ha mai visto?" and "Non lo ha mai visto?".

[@leonardoancillotti6633]

Merci! Here in central Italy you can use just a sort of "n" to make the negation, for example: "n'è vero" instead of "non è vero" means "it's not true". French and Italian are really close!

[@benlaterreur9799]

@@leonardoancillotti6633 Sì, l'italiano è una lingua che mi è piaciuto studiare e sono contento di aver ancora delle cose da imparare. Per quanto riguarda il "n" che usate per la negazione, mi pare che sia piuttosto una forma orale ma che non si possa scrivere in un italiano "corretto", sbaglio? In francese invece si deve fare l'elisione della "e" di "ne" se la parola successiva comincia con una vocale. Per esempio "Il ne vient pas", "non viene", ma "il n'est pas venu", "non è venuto". Se si può effettivamente scrivere "n'è venuto", allora sì, le nostre lingue sono ancora più vicine di quello che pensavo!

[@leonardoancillotti6633]

@@benlaterreur9799 hai ragione, è solo una forma orale e non si può scrivere, complimenti per il tuo italiano! Salut

[@benlaterreur9799]

@@leonardoancillotti6633 Merci ! Ciao

[@DrWhom]

We do say things like "moi pas!" and "personne!" all the time. A similar neglect occurs with "only"-type constructions. Situation: does the package contain printed matter only? Y'a que des papiers? -Oui, c'est ça, que des papiers.

[@gustavovillegas5909]

One Sprachbund I find incredibly fascinating is the Mesoamerican Sprachbund. One common feature is to use body parts for other parts of speech. Such as to say "inside the house" it would be "in the belly of the house"

[@ratelslangen]

We do differenttiate between intensifier and reflectives in Dutch though. Zelf is used to intensify, "de president zelf" while zichzelf is used to be reflective "hij houd van zichzelf". These cannot be used interchangably.

[@AverytheCubanAmerican]

This topic is so fascinating. Never thought about this

[@ghenulo]

NativLang did a video on it. kzbin.info/www/bejne/qJCke5V7pKalobc Luckily, Paul goes into more detail on what this linguistic jargon means.

[@dinis8271]

Avery the Cuban-American mate stop being everywhere

[@KarenVanessaBuitrago]

yes, please make more videos!

[@felipeyoutube04]

These “European language standards” are shared features I have observed while studying languages but never thought there was a specific identification for this

[@anubisu1024]

Let's see how Japanese, my mothertongue, is close to SAE: (I put spaces and hyphens in Japanese sentences for easy understanding) 1. Definite / indefinite articles: -NO, not even has definiteness. But sometimes we use demonstrative adjectives for indicating definiteness. 2. Relative clauses with relative pronouns: -No, not even has relative clauses. Relative clauses are considered as adjective phrases, so they come before the noun, like ordinary adjectives do. For example: 2.1. "The man drives the car" is "男-が 車-を 運転する", it's like "man-[nom] car-[acc] drive". 2.2. "The man who drives the car" is "車-を 運転する 男", it's like "car-[acc] drive man". 2.3. "The car which the man drives" is "男-が 運転する 車", it's like "man-[nom] drive car". Sentences with relative clauses can be analyzed as [noun] - [modifier] word order in English, but in Japanese, the word order is always [modifier] - [noun]. I don't know if it's natural for you to say this but it's like saying "car-driving man" or "man-driven car". Genitive relative clauses are difficult to translate into Japanese. For example: 2.4. "The man whose car I drove" is considered as a compound of nominative and accusative relative clauses: 2.5. "The man who owns the car which I drove" is "私-が 運転した 車-を 所有する 男", it's like "I-[nom] drove car-[acc] own man". It's like compound of "car-owing man" and "me-driven car" (yet I feel it's strange). 3. "Have" perfect: -NO, not even has the distinction between past tense and perfect aspect. 4. A passive formed with a linking verb and a past participle: -NO, not even has linking verbs or participles. A suffix is used for passive. For example: 4.1. "The man stole the car" is "男-が 車-を 盗ん-だ", it's like "man-[nom] car-[acc] steal-[past]". 4.2. "The car was stolen by the man" is "車-が 男-に 盗-まれ-た", it's like "car-[nom] man-[dat] steal-[passive]-[past]". 5. Dative external possessors: -NO, we use genitive a suffix for any possession. It's like English. 6. Negative pronouns with lack of verbal negation: -NO, we use interrogative pronouns and a suffix which means like "even" instead, and always negate verbs. For example: 6.1. "do nothing" is "何-も し-ない", it's like "what-even do-not". 6.2. "nobody comes" is "誰-も 来-ない", it's like "who-even come-not". 7. Comparisons of equality based on an adverbial relative clause: -NO, not even has relative clauses as said before, and equality is expressed by using a word and a suffix which mean "same" and "degree". For example: 7.1. "He is as tall as me" is "彼-は 私-と 同じ-くらい 高い", it's like "he-[nom] I-with same-degree tall". 8. Non-pro-drop -NO, (it's pro-drop,) not even has conjugations according to the person and number of subject, and subject is not necessary for a sentence. For example: 8.1. "I like languages" is "(私-は) 言語-が 好き", it's like "(I-[nom]) language-[acc] like". 8.2. "Does he like languages?" is "(彼-は) 言語-が 好き？", it's like "(he-[nom]) language-[acc] like?". 9. Intensifier-reflective differentiation: -NO, we use the same word for intensifier and reflective. It's like English. Or, just emphasize a word by tone or use "by oneself" to intensify, or use a word like "self" for reflective. For example: 9.1. "The president himself gave a speech" is "大統領 自ら 演説-を した", it's like "president by_himself speech-[acc] did". 9.2. "He loves himself" is "彼-は 自分-を 愛する", it's like "he-[nom] oneself-[acc] love". And less certain ones: 10. S-V-O word order: -NO, S-O-V is the most natural word order in Japanese. 11. Absence of reduplication: -NO, we have some reduplication nouns like "人々" ("person-person" for people), "家々" ("house-house" for houses), "山々" ("mountain-mountain" for mountains), and so many other types of reduplications like "ますます" ("increase-increase" for more and more), "軽々" ("light-light" for easily, effortlessly), "ぐんぐん" ("zoom-zoom", onomatopoeia), and so on. But reduplications are now not productive for common words; for example, we don't say "*手々" ("hand-hand" for hands), "*友々" ("friend-friend" for friends), "*梨々" ("pear-pear" for pears). The result is 0/9 or even 0/11. How interesting! It seems that Japanese has the opposite features against European languages, but actually there're so many Japanese who are good at European languages (and of course there're also Europeans who are good at Japanese).

[@blankblank1284]

That is why Japanese is considered a Rank 5* for Difficulty for English Speakers. Rank 5 is the hardest, and the Astrisk means it is abdnormally difficult for that level. Basically Japanese is one of, if not the, hardest language for a Native English speaker to learn.

[@anubisu1024]

@@blankblank1284 Yeah I know that. But, if you look at the grammar and ignore the writing system, Japanese is not so difficult, should be Rank 2 or 3. Japanese is basically an agglutinative language, so there's few irregular conjugations or declensions, just putting morphemes together.

[@blankblank1284]

@@anubisu1024 Pretty much, grammer is still quite hard. But not absurdly so. Most of the difficulty comes from the stupidly complex writing system. Having Two Syllabaries and a Logography. Its a lot.

[@anubisu1024]

Blank Blank Oh really? Then it can be because I'm a native speaker that I feel it's not hard. And definitely the writing system is crazy.

[@LisandroLorea]

@@anubisu1024 Japanese has different words and grammar based on whether you and the listener are male, female, equals or sempai/kouhai, etc. which means a lot more stuff to memorize. Also Japanese avoid confrontation so as a foreigner even if you produce a grammatically correct and natural sounding sentence it can sound unintentionally rude. Conversely, a foreigner can mistakenly translate "日本語が上手ですね" as "your Japanese is good" when it actually means "your Japanese is terrible but I appreciate your effort". Or that "はい" can just mean "I'm listening" rather than "Yes, I agree" I know a lot of this is culture but Japanese relies a lot on shared culture and "reading the air". A thing that IS language and also makes the language difficult is how productive kanji compounds are yet at the same time how many homophones there are. For every kanji you need to learn one or more native pronounciations and up to three Chinese pronunciations brought from different centuries but coexisting today and all funnelled through the simpler Japanese phonology, so you have like a hundred kanji that end up sounding "shou" or "kou". And whenever someone creates new jukugo for the foreigner who wasn't there at the time it becomes hard to guess which kanji have to come to mind when hearing it. In that regard I think Chinese is much easier, even if you need to learn more kanji and a much more complex phonology.

[@tatechristensen2182]

Sprachbunds can pose a huge problem for linguists in the Americas who are trying to determine linguistic relationships. Since very few Native American languages were written pre-contact, it can be hard to tell whether two languages are related or if they just have a history of prolonged contact.

[@henrywong2725]

Sprachbunds has also already caused much confusion in Southeast Asia and Africa already, so it is quite a widespread problem

[@brianlewis5692]

Korean-Japanese and Altaic (Turkic-Mongolic-Tungusic) are also examples of Sprachbunds

[@maxcrc]

Amazing video,man ! You explain many "technical" aspects of linguism in a very simple way. You rock !

[@unrecognizableuser9464]

Nice telling about one of the most difficult things)

[@mistyminnie5922]

This is so interesting! I've never heard of it, but it does seem to make a lot of sense that they influenced each other over the years.

[@FarfettilLejl]

3:53 In the area of Poland I come from, we sometimes also use the "have perfect" construction. Seems to me like it can be an influence of the two main historical languages of the place: German and Kashubian

[@pomtjjz]

Can you give an example?

[@vytah]

@@pomtjjz There are 4 ways to form past tense in Kashubian: forms of bëc (to be) + past active participle (gender matches the subject), forms of że (auxiliary participle) + PAP, bare PAP, or forms of miec (to have) + passive participle (neuter gender). So the last type goes: móm pisóné, môsz pisóné, mô pisóné, mómë pisóné, môta pisóné, mają pisóné. I do not know whether some of those forms count as perfect or imperfect, or it depends on the aspect of the verb itself. You can also use the PAP of miec to form the pluperfect. Source: Hana Makùrôt, Gramatika kaszëbsczégò jãzëka

[@konradhalman5104]

As a Kaszubian I can confirm. We have this trait in Kaszubian (probably by influence of Germanic languages) and I (like some other people) use it when speaking Polish colloqiually. I know it's incorrect but it lets express things more precisely.

[@dyskr]

4:06 Irish also has a perfect tense “tá sé déanta ann” 9:16 Irish is in this group too you can say “A ghrá é féin é” or “Tháinig an t-uachtarán é féin le hóráid a thabhairt”

[@traktortarik8224]

6:19 I feel like the French example “personne n’est venu” is more of an example of marginalizing “ne” as opposed to a result of the Sprachbund. The “ne” is actually the negating particle in this case, it’s just that modern French has marginalized it in favor of “pas” (which means “step”, so that “ne... pas” originally meant “not a step”). So although it may not be necessarily negated (at least in colloquial French), it’s not really a result of the European Sprachbund, and more just a result of a separate and independent linguistic evolution.

[@Langfocus]

I think there’s some room for debate with French. To some extent I deferred to Haspelmath because he knows more than I do, but I made sure to include the “if” (which he includes as well).

[@frenchimp]

You have a point there. On the other hand in latin the negation was just 'ne'. But in French you have to reinforce the 'ne' with a word expressing a small amount, like 'pas', 'goutte', 'mie', and the 'ne' became redundant in spoken French... and even if it's still in use in more formal French, the 'ne' is percieved as accessory. So that we do have a convergence phenomenon because the absence of 'pas' is at least a serious weakening of the negation. I tend to believe that this kind of evolution is typical of a Sprachbund effect...

[@shaide5483]

Yungkebab French should change Ne to Noi /Nuah/

[@pouleetsonprophete4632]

@@shaide5483 why???

[@shaide5483]

@@pouleetsonprophete4632 It’d be easier to use it, instead of using the word for step as the negator.

[@lunamoon6056]

Waw! That’s a very dense video. Never heard about the Sprachbund but I find it utterly interesting. Thank you Paul.

[@nincom4441]

I first noticed this when I was learning French in school. I was wondering why French has almost the exact same rules as my native German considering when to use to have to build the perfect tense and when to use to be. What was especially dazzling to me was that Latin, which I was learning as well back then, built its perfect tense in a completely different way which made expaining the similarity with the family-tree-model impossible. The sprachbund is in my opinion a very good example of how Europeans have interacted with each other across national borders (which are in fact a rather new invention) the past centuries and that languages borrowing grammar from neighbouring languages is a totally normal ocurrence and nothing worth ranting about (I'm thinking of how people who think they are saving "ye olde", pure German always complain about German borrowing the English expression "to make sense" when Goethe would have said something along the lines of "to yield sense")

[@diegomartella3020]

Really ? I am Italian (which is also a language that features both "essere" (to be) and "avere" (to have) as auxiliaries) and I have studied both German and French and The use in french of the auxiliary "etre" is much less prominent then in both Italian and German, from what I have noticed Italian is much more akin to German albeit in German the use of Sein is still more prominent (i remember that whilst learning the German's strong verb i would learn the paradigm and the auxiliary verb aswell, because some verbs uses "avere"(to have) in Italian and "Sein" in German or viceversa)😅

[@javicruz9754]

French developed from Germanic speakers who were taught Latin, maybe as you notice the R sound is the same in both languages, Dutch also has that R sound pronunciation feature Latin was the language of law and administration, and the Frankish kings and their nobles adopted Latin, but somehow they learned it their way, making it similar to the German language structure

[@the_demiurg]

@@javicruz9754 I wouldn't say that French developed from Frankish speaker learning Latin. It's much more likely that French arose among the Gallo-Roman majority in middle ages Gaul and that the minority elite Frankish speaker acted as superstrate on the native population. Also, the french R developed quite late (if I'm not wrong as late as the XVII century) Some even say it spread into Dutch (and even other Germanic languages, due to French influence and not vice versa).

[@emmaingelssonalkbring21]

This video reminds me to be grateful that I happened to pick a pro-drop Spanish as my third language in High School. It was an usual choice at my time. Now it is a common choice for school children in Sweden. Spanish helped me getting into Finnish my fourth language with some pre-understanding. Now I have lost count of my number of languages I studied a bit. Nowadays I enjoy studying Hebrew.

[@w4lr6s]

I have heard of Indian and Mainland Asian sprachbund. Indian sprachbund features include retroflex consonants (You may notice Indians sometimes pronounces T, D, and R a lil bit differently) while Mainland Asian sprachbund features include tonality.

[@Angelica-gt6rz]

How close to SAE is the Basque language? 1. *Having both definite and indefinite articles.* It would be debatable if Basque has articles per se, since it does distinguish between definite singular, indefinite, plural and definite plural of proximity, but definite does not always equal the English THE and under no circumstances could the indefinite (or unmarked) be substituted for A. Kind of a NO for this one. Yes to definite article probably, not the indefinite. Let’s try with the word ‘friend’ Lagun (friend or friends, depending on the context). Indefinite or unmarked. Laguna (the friend). Definite singular. Lagunak (friends or the friends). Definite plural. Lagunok (close friends, you (my, our) friends, these friends). Definite plural of proximity. But if we take a look at a couple examples: - Nire laguna da {my friend-definite is} - It’s my friend - Hire lagun axolagabeak egin dinat {your-informal friend-indefinite careless-[Ergative denfinite] to-do have-(di-singular-object [Acc])-na-(when speaking to a girl using informal you)-t-(to-me [dat]} - As -- Your indefinite-friend careless-the (subjectof a transitive sentence) to-do has-something (I am speaking to you, girl)-to-me -- Your careless friend has done that to me - Aita, gaur laguna ikusi dut {Dad, today friend [Acc. Definite] to-see have-I} - It would literally mean {Dad, today I have seen the friend} but we would mean Dad, today I have seen a friend of mine - Zenbat laguni eman diozu hori? {How much/many friend [Dat. Indefinite] to-give di-(singular acc object)-o-(singular [Dat]object)-zu-(you [Dat]) that? ( notice that that would be the Spanish eso, not aquello. There are 3 as well).} - It would literally mean : To how many indefinite friend have you given that to? (not meaning one or some friends but rather literally indefinite number of friends.) - Lagunari eman al dizkiozu hoiek? {friend-definite-[Dat] to-give al(whether or not, for a yes or no answer) dizkiozu (di-object [Acc] zki- makes the object plural o- to him,her [Dat] zu-you[Nom]) -- kind of like this -- friend-the-to to-give whether things-have-to-him-you those? -- Have you given those to your friend? 2. *Relative clauses with relative pronouns* NO. It works similar to the Japanese language - The man who drives the car {Kotxea gidatzen duen gizona}- {Car-definite-[Acc] driving (unfinished regular action) has/does-(du-singular object [acc] en(when preceding the subject, it shows that the subject is not the car but the man) man-definite [Nom] - The man whose car I drove (this sentence wouldn’t be possible in traditional Basque, nowadays some would add invented relative pronouns to make it possible, but it would be just used in academic written style) 3. *The “have” perfect* NO. But actually yes. - I have finished the report {Txostena bukatu dut} With an easier example to explain this: Etorri: infinitive/perfect of “to come”. It’s both, there is no infinitive per se in Basque, nor is there any past participle. Etortzen: indefinite form, for a long time Etorriko: future form Etor: used for some conditionals, imperatives... These combine with an infinite number of aditz-laguntzaileak (verb-helpers) to make an almost infinite number of combinations. Note that in most cases, except the ones composed by only one word (etor, nentorren...) most of the information goes to the auxiliary verb, Dativ, Accusative, number of objects, subject... etc. Auxiliary verbs are very confusing so let us not focus on that (I will sometimes translate them by the English "to have" when they are actually not the same). So I said no, because there is no past participle, but there is a tense that would be equal to it. - Nator {I come} - Etortzen naiz {I usually come} - Etorri naiz {I have come} - Etorri nintzen {I came once} - Etortzen nintzen {I used to come} - Nentorren {I came, indefinite period of time} - Etorriko naiz {I will come} - Etorriko nintzateke {I will be able to come} - Etorriko nintzatekeen {I would be able to come} - Etor naiteke {I can come} - Etorri nintekeen {I was able to come} - Etorri zatzaizkit {you have come to me} - Etorri nintzaian {I came to you- informal masculine} - Etorri nintzainan {I came to you- informal feminine} - Etorri natzaizu {I have come to you-singular formal} - Etor banintzaizu {If I came to you} - Etor nintzaizuke {I would come to you} And this could go on forever 4. *A passive formed with a linking verb + a past participle* NOPE - The car was stolen {Kotxea lapurtu egin zuten} - {Car-the to-steal to-do they-have zuten-(z- past object u- singular te-they n-past tense)} We would usually use structures such as: lapurtutako/lapurturiko kotxea (difficult to translate word by word but meaning the car which has been stolen) 5. *Dative external possessors* YES. For once. - The mother washes the child’s hair {Amak semeari ilea garbitzen dio} - {mother-definite-singular-[Ergative] child-definite-[Dat] hair-definite to-wash-indefinite di(singular object [Acc]) o(singular 3rd person [Dat]} -- Simplified -- {Mother-the child-the-to hair-the washing has} - I haven’t seen his face. (this one would be similar to the Spanish “No le he visto la cara” - {Ez diot aurpegia ikusi} - {Not di(singular object [Acc] o(3rd person [Dat] t[1st person [Nom] face-definite to-see} 6. *Negative pronouns with lack of verbal negation* NO. There is verbal negation and it changes the word order, in order to emphasize it. - Nobody came {Ez zen inor etorri} -{Not was nobody to-come} - They never did it {Ez zuten inoiz egin} -- {Not z([Acc] object in the past)- u(singlular) te(they [Nom] -n(past tense)} -- Wouls mean something like -- {Not had they never do} 7. *Comparisons of equality based on adverbial relative clauses* NO. - As tall as me {Ni bezain garaia} - {I-as?- tall-definite} Bezain is not an adverb, I don’t even know what it is. 8. *Non-pro-drop* NO. Definitely pro-drop. In case in wasn’t clear, Basque verbs contain ALL the information, so subjects, objects... most things can be dropped. - Eman diezazkizuket {To-give di(3rd person object [Acc]) eza(object indicator [Dat] zki(plural direct object) zu(formal you [Dat]) ke(shows potentiality, to be able to) t(1st person [Nom]} - So this all means {I could give them to you} 9. *Intensifier reflexive differentiation.* YES. But not the way other languages do. - The president HIMSELF gave a speech at our school {Lehendakariak BERAK... (both in ergative case in this case) - He loves himself {Bere burua maite du} - literally {he loves his head}. There is no reflexive, we use our heads. - I have killed myself {Nire buruaz beste egin dut} - literally {I have made of my head the one of another} 10. *SVO* NO. Basque is a SOV language, but it is incredibly important to change the word order depending on ehat you are asked or what you are trying to say. - Hark hau egin du {He has done this} - {Berak egin du hau} Hark changes to berak. (It is him who has done this) - {Hau hark egina da} (This has been done by him) - {Hau ez du hark egin} (This hasn’t been done by him} Etc. 11. *Absence of reduplication.* NO. There is a LOT of it. We don’t use it to make plurals from singulars, but the most common use of it is to make adjectives or adverbs stronger. For exemple: - Urdin= blue. Urdin-urdina= truly blue, very blue. - Txiki = little. Txiki-txikia = tiny Also onomatopoeias are extremely common in Basque and often use reduplication. - Mara-mara (the calm way in which snow falls) - Kili-kolo (when something isn’t very stable) - Zalantza-malantza (when doubting something) -Mauka-mauka (when eating) -Ttipi-ttapa (when slowly walking, but non-stop) Etc. Result: 2/11. This was long but thank you for reading it, whoever has. Basque is a language isolate, surrounded by indoeuropeas languages, and I have personally found it to share a few similarities with Japanese, Hungarian, Finnish... It is however truly unique and still a bit endangered which is why it would make me extremely happy if someone read this. ;)

[@didamaciel9841]

Wow! This was fantastic! Up!

[@Outwhere]

Eskerrik asko! (sorry, my Basque vocabulary is limited to about ten words).

[@JWheadset]

I hope that you reach 1 million subscribers by 2020!

[@r.m.pereira5958]

Other SAE features: - a uvular/guttural [R] present in French, German, Dutch, Portuguese, Danish, parts of Swedish and Norwegian. - the reciprocal construction (e.g. "we see each other") is of a mixed type, including both a reflexive and another pronominal marker, like in Spanish "nos vemos" (lit. Reflexive we-see) or "nos vemos uno al otro" (lit. Reflexive we-see one to-the other). - order of possessive determiner and noun: most european languages have "possessive + noun" (my hat) and not *"hat my". - null object: present in Portuguese, Spanish, Italian, German, Serbo-Croatian, Hungarian, Bulgarian. This is the optional deletion of the object when inferred by the context like in Portuguese "eu vi a camisa e comprei" (lit. I saw the shit and bought"). In English you would have to use "and I bought it". - the palatal lateral [ʎ] is rare outside Europe: present in Portuguese, Spanish (north), Catalan, Basque, Breton, Scottish Gaelic, Slovak, Latvian, Serbo-Croatian, Ukranian, Greek, Bulgarian, Sami, Komi, Udmurt, and previously in French and Hungarian. - No degrees of distance in demonstratives (only "ce" for "this" and "that" in French, and only one demonstrative also in German, Danish, Swedish, Norwegian, Icelandic and Estonian). - A 2 or 3 way gender (feminine and masculine or feminine, masculine and neuter) - here English is an exception in that it does not have gender.

[@Extremetothemax1]

The gender one wouldn't be an SAE feature as sprachbund features are ones that are not explained by the languages having a common ancestor. Gender in European languages is inherited from proto-indo-european.

[@mcsilva75]

Eu vi a camisa e comprei-a. O uso do pronome com função de complemento direto (-a) é obrigatória ou a frase fica sem sentido.

[@r.m.pereira5958]

@@mcsilva75 A prescrição gramatical assim o diz, mas em Português Europeu é perfeitamente possível omitir o pronome objeto direto se o contexto assim o permitir.

[@mcsilva75]

@@r.m.pereira5958 nunca se deve omitir o complemento, seja ele grupo nominal ou pronominal, pelo menos assim o ensino ao meus alunos. Exemplo: A Ana comprou um livro. A Ana comprou-o ontem.

[@GrosBonAnge]

Hey, what is your source for this? It sounds interesting and I am writing my master thesis about SAE. I'd appreciate it, if you could give me a source for these. Thanks!

[@Giannis_Sarafis]

I think that an intensifier (the word "kendi") is used in Turkish too. Also the reduplication is common in modern Greek, giving emphasis to some adverbs. Thanks for sharing!

[@wotsup9oo]

In chilean spanish we have informal reduplication to express the literal, widest meaning of an adjective or adjetivised noun, for example: “ese hombre es malo, malo”, literally ‘that man is bad, bad’. “El perro es bravo, bravo”, ‘the dog is fierce, fierce’. By understanding, you can imagine a man who’s got all of the attributes a bad man can have or a dog who is highly dangerous. If you don’t repeat the word, it will have a softer meaning, leading even to show just an appreciation of what it really is.

[@Lewis-TheNthLevel]

You really are a scholar of language. Thank you for the work you do, and I look forward to enjoying more in the future!

[@RJ-sy5xt]

11:27 We have the same words "anak" in Filipino is child but in plural we say, "mga anak" but we have reduplication in actions and affix

[@montanus777]

3:24 well, there _is_ a way to use a question-word: "Der Mann, *welcher* das Auto fährt." (welcher -> which or which one) but it's way more common to use 'der' instead of 'welcher' in modern day german.

[@GerHanssen]

Dutch is the same. You can use the question word and in some dialects they do, but it is considered awkward.

[@mr._a]

der mann, *wo* das auto fährt.

[@hennobrandsma4755]

Colloquial Dutch has “de man wie ik zie” instead of “de man die ik zie” as well. It’s considered incorrect, but is more in alignment with other European languages.

[@maxx1014]

@Evi1M4chine it's not a question of intelligence, languages don't evolve in an intelligence scheme

[@egallegal3513]

@@maxx1014 they kinda do

[@Terrus_38]

In where I live, there is Rokitno-Bund. Rokitno-bund consists of: Polish language Lithuanian language Belarusian language Ukrainian language Kashubian language. I'm a speaker of Polish Language.

[@ranjodharora6592]

In South Asia, we've had several sprachbunds. First the IA-Dravidian sprachbund, then later the Eastern Iranian and Northwestern Indo-Aryan Sprachbund, the Deccan Sprachbund, etc

[@osasunaitor]

11:20 We use reduplication a lot in Basque with adverbs, as a sort of intensifier for emotions. Eg: _Zoaz poliki!_ : Go slowly! _Zoaz poliki-poliki!_ : Go in a very calm and careful way! Or _Goxo dago_ : (S)he's good _Goxo-goxo dago_ : (S)he's feeling super nice and comfortable Also works well with adjectives: _Txikia da_ : It's small _Txiki-txikia da_ : It's really minuscule

[@noimatiki3]

The periphrastic perfect with “have” and the past particle is also used in Georgian, at least for transitive verbs. I wonder why it wasn’t included in the graph.

[@Chrischi3TutorialLPs]

I suspect that the thing about iranian languages having that type of passive may have been picked up through greek, as it was quite the common language there for some time.

[@riftmp3]

9. Hungarian does actually use the word "saját(maga)" as an intensifier, "saját" normally means "self". For example: The president himself gave a speech at our school: "Az elnők *saját* maga adott egy beszédet az iskolánkban."

[@The5thBeatle2010]

Yes but the 9th feature is not about intensifiers but about reflexive pronouns instead (which English does not have either, and thus it's left out)

[@allanrichardson1468]

The5thBeatle2010 English does have reflexive pronouns; add -self to the other pronouns. He praised himself. Against stupidity, the gods themselves contend in vain. (English translation of a quote from Schiller. The middle phrase is the title of a novel, and of the second of three “mega-chapters” in that novel, by Isaac Asimov. You can guess what the first and third chapter titles are! Recommended for anyone with doubts about the climate catastrophe.)

[@siratshi455]

The main point there is that intensifier and reflexieves must different.

[@DrGlynnWix]

@@The5thBeatle2010 I think the feature was that most SAE languages separate intensifiers and reflexive pronouns, which English does not do (hence its not being included in that feature). In English, if you want to intensify a person's action or whatnot one must use the reflexive pronoun, i.e. The president himself sad XX, but in SAE languages with this feature you can intensify this sentence with a different word than the reflexive pronoun.

[@raytheron]

Thanks, Paul, for yet another wonderfully informative video.

[@tiagosilva202]

Hello Paul! On reduplication, I'd just like to give a little heads-up about a feature in Portuguese that approaches this concept. It is common in spoken language to use reduplication when answering positively to a negative statement. It would be the equivalent to the german word 'Doch', except that the latter is also used to answer to negative questions, whereas in Portuguese that is not the case. The repeated element is usually the conjugated verb. Although, since the positive answer to a question where 'ainda não' [not yet] occurs is 'já' [already], that 'já' will be the repeated element when disagreeing with a negative statement. Examples: - Não sabes nadar. [You can't swim.] - Sei, sei! [Yes, I can!] or [I can too!] - Não fizeste os trabalhos de casa. [You didn't do your homework.] - Fiz, fiz! [Yes, I did! / I did too!] - Ainda não me enviaste os documentos? [Haven't you sent me the files yet?] - Já! [Yes, I have!] - Ainda não me enviaste os documentos! [You haven't sent me the files yet!] - Já, já! [Yes, I have! / I have too!] Notice that this construction is interchangeable with one, where the second element of the repetition gets replaced by the word 'sim' [yes], which is preferred among the written language. - Não sabes nadar. - Sei, sim! - Não fizeste os trabalhos de casa. - Fiz, sim! - Ainda não me enviaste os documentos! - Já, sim! / Enviei, sim! Yet another way of putting this idea into words is by following the conjugated verb (or the word 'já') with the word 'pois', which is a much more formal construction. - Não sabes nadar. - Sei, pois! - Não fizeste os trabalhos de casa. - Fiz, pois! - Ainda não me enviaste os documentos! - Já, pois! / Enviei, pois! Congratulations on your channel, it blows my mind!

[@alexcom6584]

Due to your channel I TEACH my TEACHER.

[@alexcom6584]

@پاسدار فرد Александр That sounds beautiful! BTW ты 🇷🇺 русский?

[@alexcom6584]

@پاسدار فرد Александр You could've just answered it in Russian lol.

[@aakhil9824]

@پاسدار فرد Александр Is your name written in Tajik as paasedaar fard?

[@janeza382]

make him instant coffee instead

[@oreste8570]

There is the Balkan Sprachbund and I'm surprised you didn't mention it because the common linguistic features in the Balkans is what made the word "Sprachbund" to be coined in the first place.

[@domsjuk]

8:05 Interestingly, there are some pro-drop features in oral German. I actually do this occasionally in casual speech and quite a lot in casual writing/texting. Especially in these dialogue settings 1.Sg. and 2.Sg. personal pronouns are dropped by some speakers if they're lazy and we are dealing with a simple SVO-structured sentence.

[@erminnella1]

One of the most interesting videos you’ve done. Great one

[@nawarnawar5822]

Hi. I've been watching your videos for almost a year, and I always enjoy watching them because I like learning new languages, though I'm 36 years old. Since some languages share some important features, such as the same word order, definite and indefinite articles and the same alphabet, it is somehow easy to learn one of each, because what we need is just learning vocabulary. Though I don't speak any of the romance languages, I noticed that they have a lot in common with each other and with the English language.

[@__vnp__]

11:17 Actually Romanian still uses reduplication at some extent. acasă - home acasă acasă - the place where one was born / where one originates from acum - now acum acum - right now Also Romanian speakers tend to reduplicate in order to emphasize something and not only to change meaning.

[@amanciojoao]

In portuguese, reduplication is frequently used in hiphened expressions, especially verbs in third person singular, like in: "mata-mata" = "kills-kills", an eliminatory match; "bate-bate" = "beats-beats", used to refer to bumper cars or other things that are meant to collide many times, like in "pirulito que bate, bate" (a popular child's song), "lollipop that beats beats"; "come-come" = "eats-eats", a common name for Pacman; or even "pisca-pisca" = "blinks-blinks", which means flashers or blinkers. I wouldn't say this a major or significant grammatical feature, but I think it's interesting to consider.

[@postmodpen1169]

Yeah no. Is not the same thing. This is called contrastive focus reduplication. en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Contrastive_focus_reduplication

[@JfromUK_]

I can think of at least one example of reduplication in English, where the first word is emphasised, as if to act as an adjective to the noun that follows: OUT out = on a full night out ("are we just going out, or 'OUT out'?") I think there are other cases you could hear it, but it's totally unofficial and not dictionary form :)

[@villeporttila5161]

@@JfromUK_ was about to say similar. I also remember hearing 'home home' a lot when at university to describe someone going back to where their parents lived

[@5koKirilov]

When I saw the thumbnail of this video, I though you were gonna speak about the Balkan sprachbund which is a prime example of a sprachbund.

[@unapatton1978]

That would be very interesting!

[@5koKirilov]

@@unapatton1978 Yeah, my native language is from that group and it's amazing that I don't understand any of our neighbours, yet, the languages work according to basically the same rules.

[@roryconnolly6292]

Thanks for the fascinating video! On the topic of reduplication, it reminded me that in colloquial hiberno-english, or maybe english in general I'm not sure, it is fairly common to repeat words to change the meaning slightly. For instance there is home (where you live now) and then there is home-home (the family home), many other examples like this.

[@pediaditispanagiotis2263]

Case 6 is half absent in modern greek. Whereas in everyday speech you can't say "nobody came"="κανένας ήρθε", one can use the more archaic "ουδείς" instead of "κανένας". So you can say either "κανένας δεν ήρθε" (case 6 truly is not used) or "ουδείς ήρθε" (case 6 is used). Note, since it sounds very formal, it fits better with elegant verbs in formal cases like public speeches, etc.

[@ChasMusic]

Thank you for the fascinating video. American English speaker here. While I agree reduplication is not a major feature of English, I do use it occasionally to subset meanings. For instance, if someone tells me the store we want to go to is closed, I might ask "Is it closed or is it closed closed?" (one closed meaning it isn't open today/yet/anymore today; "closed closed" meaning out of business).

[@kekeke8988]

Long, long ago in a galaxy far, far away...

[@ChasMusic]

@@kekeke8988 Lol, right, for emphasis/enlargement, forgot about that one.

[@georgios_5342]

4:48 one thing to note is that Greek doesn't have this. This is probably a mistake, as Greek forms a passive with verb suffixes.

[@PSspecialist]

"το αυτοκίνητο είχε κλαπεί" is technically fine is it not?

[@georgios_5342]

@@PSspecialist nope. It's still a change of suffix in the verb. It's just in the Hypersyntelicos tense, which in modern Greek is formed with the verb είχα, the Parataticos(Imperfect) tense of the verb έχω, which means have. In this case, the sentence in active speech would be: Κάποιος είχε κλέψει το αυτοκίνητο (Somebody had stolen the car) And in the passive as you said: Το αυτοκίνητο είχε κλαπεί (The car had been stolen) In both English and Greek, the agent is unnecessary in this case, because we don't know who it is, so the somebody goes away. However, while in English a "been" appeared in the middle of the passive sentence, nowhere is that seen in Greek. The word κλέψει from the active sentence is in modern Greek called the infinitive, and it's only use is in the Perfect tenses. It has a different form in active and passive for every verb (can't think of any exceptions right now, but there might be a few) which defer due to a change in suffix. The verb είχε is simply a past form of the verb have, not the verb to be.

[@akumayoxiruma]

My hypothesis is that Latin being the language of education, religion and intercultural communication has had a great influence on all European languages as even today Latin phrases such as 'exemplum gevere' or 'a priori' continue to be used. Since English is the lingua franca [another Latin word] nowadays, features of this language affect the way people speak in their language. E.g.: Many Germans have forgotten that noun compounds [like this one] are written TogetherAsOneWOrd or seperated-with-dashes. Because in recent years, despite being grammatically incorrect people tend to write compounds as seperate words next to eachother just like in English.

[@Neophema]

People do this a lot in Norwegian too, and I HATE IT.

[@Schindlabua]

I feel like the internet also really accelerates language change.

[@sgagnonproulx]

Hi, I'm working as a sign language interpreter (Quebec's Sign Language, also known as LSQ) and I love your channel. Would you be interested into making a video about sign languages families around the world? That would be amazing. :)

[@PhotoSportiv]

once again an excellent and interesting video Paul ! cheers

[@regular-joe]

Thanks, Paul, for this introduction to a new (to me!) way to look these languages. I've been in love with language and languages since a young child, I'm truly a total linguistics nerd (I even loved diagramming sentences in school), and this was absolute candy to me!

[@hernanmarcos9177]

This is the first episode in the Langfocus multiverse were Paul assembles all the voice recorders

[@pillsburydoughboy9006]

4:23 I have studied French mor several years, and in my experience, most people say “J’ai fini la rapport” The only person who said “J’ai tarminé la rapport” was a person who knows the French spoken in France, which is weird compared to Canadian French.

[@louis6265]

« terminer » and « finir » literally mean the exact same thing in this sentence, you can say either, no matter if you're from France/Canada.

[@Inconito___]

J'ai fini le rapport and J'ai terminé le rapport are nearly the same, an interesting thing though is that j'ai fini tends to indicate that you finished to read the report and terminé means that you finished writing it

[@tirlio]

11:56 the Vandals were some mad folk. I really can recommend reading up on them!

[@burkhardstackelberg1203]

A Sprachbund from the region of my grandparents: The German-Latvian-Estonian Sprachbund. In that area, you find a lot of common vocabulary, mostly of German origin, because they shared a German speaking elite for centuries. They also share local vocabulary like Estonian "piim" or Latvian "piens" for "milk" and vocabulary from their surrounding political powers, like Russian, Swedish or Polish. Would not be surprised if they also shared grammatical features, like noun case constructions... Indeed, the amount of German vocabulary is so high that it is easy for me as a German to spot the topic they are talking about without nearly any other knowledge of their languages.

[@paultijink9966]

Really interesting video, thanks! Some remarks from a Dutch native speaker: 5. Dative external possessors: interestingly, there is no dative ending in Dutch to mark this. I think, most others have case endings. 8. There is a difference: De president zelf hield een toespraak / Hij houdt van zichzelf SVO: in German and Dutch only affirmative clauses are SVO, any subordinate clause becomes SOV, and word order can also change for emphasis: morgen kom ik (tomorrow I('ll) come. I think German, Dutch, Luxemburgish, Frisian, Low Saxon, etc. are not classified as SVO.

[@Dr_V]

6:14 that's absent from literary Romanian, but in colloquial speech we use a rather odd equivalent, inserting an absurd noun (something obviously false in context) as a stand in for the negative pronoun. Example for "nobody came": "a venit dracu". Word for word this means "the devil came", but as the devil is a known fictional character (or at least not expected to show up as a real person), so the meaning is that nobody came.

[@mexicounexplained]

Never heard of Sprachbund before or "Standard Average European." Thanks Paul. I like that shirt, too. :-)

[@ZhangtheGreat]

It's interesting that, in standard Mandarin, we use the "have" to denote a negative past action and not the perfect form. For instance: 我上了大学 means "I attended university" (literally: "I attend [particle used to denote past action] university"). 我没有上大学 means "I didn't attend university" (literally: "I [negative particle] have attend university"). Note the presence of the 有, meaning "have," in the negative sentence and not the positive one. In standard Mandarin, this is a strict rule that must not be broken, but in vernacular Taiwanese Mandarin, it's considered acceptable to use the 有 in the positive form as well (我有上大学, meaning "I have attend university").

[@kekeke8988]

If 上 means attend, then what means up?

[@ZhangtheGreat]

@@kekeke8988 上 has multiple meanings depending on its usage. - As a preposition, 上 can mean up, above, atop, before, previous, etc. - As a verb, it means "to attend," but it can only be used for places we *have* to attend: school (上学), work (上班), the bathroom (上厕所), and the streets a.k.a. out in public (上街). We cannot use 上 to say we're attending a concert, because that's not something we *have* to attend.

[@dj_koen1265]

Very informative, i found it very interesting so thanks for sharing

[@njjoy9540]

I've been watching your videos for the past few years, and my admiration to you has been growing year after year. Your videos are very informative and enlightening. Thank you very much. God Bless.

[@zer-atop3032]

In reality, you can make definite and indefinite articles in Slavic languages, for example in Serbo-Croatian : you can use "jedan/jedna/jedno" for singular indefinite (it means "one" and depends on the gender), to make it plural you can say "jedni/jedne". For definite, you can say "ovaj/ova/ovo" which litteraly means "this", and for plural you say "ovi/ove". So you can make articles, but it's not necessary to use it.

[@georgios_5342]

5:00 that doesn't happen in Greek! Passive is formed with inflections, no linking verb. The car was stolen=Το αυτοκίνητο κλάπηκε/εκλάπη.

[@mrpetit2]

Interesting that a language like latin doesnt have a lot of these features where it is of course the basis of french, italian, spanish, portugese and romanian. So the transitian of those features is indeed probably post roman empire

[@FrogsOfTheSea]

GuidoK perhaps related to the huge amount of migrations of the Germanic, Celtic and Slavic tribes after the fall of the Roman Empire?

[@heinrich.hitzinger]

If you removed the case endings such phrases as 'vinum vinorum' would most likely look like reduplications...

[@janeza382]

Latin language influenced as written/literate form while other languages existed on its own.

[@hrotha]

Some of those features are indeed Latin, just not Classical Latin.

[@julianfejzo4829]

As an Albanian speaker I had no idea my language has so many SAE features, apparently more than our neighbors, except Greek. We do have another Sprachbund called "Balkan Sprachbund", which includes Albanian, South Slavic, Greek, Balkan Romance, Balkan Turkish, Gagauz and Romani. Truly a fascinating subject.

[@OlDoinyo]

There is believed to be a northeast Asian Sprachbund including Japanese, Korean, Manchurian, and possibly the Ryukyuan languages and Ainu, due to strong cultural ties between the populations. Many of the individual languages are actually isolates, but they have picked up some common characteristics.

[@timmurphy2221]

While I had some inkling that there was such a crossover Sprachbund within European languages, I had no idea that anyone has ever specifically studied it. This is one of the most fascinating videos on language I have seen. Thanks.

[@timg.5400]

Pozdrav vsem Evropejcem in predvsem bratom Slovanom iz Slovenije!

[@chernobogroach6359]

wzajemnie z Polski

[@Avianable]

I speak Slovenian and we do occasionally use 'reduplication'. Mostly to emphasize that the meaning of the word is meant literally or with its 'real' meaning if you will. An example would be "a je šel domov, al domov domov?" (did he go home, or to the 'real' home). In this case 'real' home could be his actual place where he lives, as opposed to the place where he temporarily lives.

[@Avianable]

I have just found something interesting...

[@Avianable]

en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Contrastive_focus_reduplication

[@Carewolf]

Well, they even do in English. I think the great great grandmother of the author of this piece would be very very disappointed in him.

[@friisolafson5459]

Could you help and tell in details how much does Slovenian or one of its dialects fit into this SAE pattern, please?

[@NigelDowney-sh5yd]

Thanks for a really interesting video. Greek has a small number of words/expressions with reduplication, some formed with ‘and’, such as που και που, πως και πως, and some resulting from its contact with Turkish, such as σιγά-σιγά (siga-siga) and αργά-αργά (arga-arga), both meaning either ‘slowly’ or ‘in the fullness of time’. This illustrates how the concept of sprachbund also extends to contact with and influence by non-IE languages outside the geographical core. Language change is of course an ongoing process and I suspect that English nowadays is having a heavy influence on European languages, just as Latin and then French did in the past, but not just in terms of vocabulary borrowing, but influence on grammar and syntax as well, and perhaps even intonation due to the prevalence of modern media - a very interesting area for further research!

[@babysenpai3883]

I'm following after your video about morrocan darija you really do a good work I'm so glad to know you and this fabulous channel ❤️

[@chacuaco69]

There is a southern Balkan sprachbund. Mostly comprising Greek, Romanian, Bulgarian, Macedonian and Albanian. Amongst other features is the use of articles, and some of them attaching the articles at the end of words. The lack of infinitive is other common feature.