The God-Man Mystery - Was Jesus Omniscient as an Infant?

[@trishajohnson4692]

Beautifully answered❤

[@adambachert9405]

Thank you, Mr. Koukl 😊

[@STRvideos]

You are very welcome.

[@rue883]

Ahhhhh. I like this. One God, 3 persons. One person, 2 natures.

[@markhall445]

See Chapter 7 of Reasonable Faith by William Lane Craig…The Self Understanding of Jesus.

[@simonline1194]

I struggle with the way Koukl articulates his Christology. The Messiah is both Divine Creator [YHWH (Ex.3:14; Jn.1:1)] and human creature [Jesus of Nazareth (Matt.1:21; Jn.1:14)], One Person [the Son] simultaneously (since the Incarnation) existing in TWO different WAYS by means of TWO distinct but NOT separate NATURES. It is the Messiah/Christ alone (not YHWH and not Jesus of Nazareth) Who is Emmanuel - God [YHWH] with us [Jesus of Nazareth] (Matt.1:22-23) since YHWH is God but not with us whilst Jesus is with us but not God. Only the Messiah (the God/man) is truly Emmanuel. As Divine, the Son is the son of the Father but He is not God’s son, neither is He the Son of God (🤦‍♂️). He is God Himself (Jn.1:1). As human, the Son is the Lamb of God Who takes away the sin of the world (Jn.1:29), something that is metaphysically impossible for the Son as Divine since, as Divine, He is by Nature Immortal (which is why He has had to incarnate as a man in order to achieve as human what He could NEVER achieve as Divine). Simonline 🏴󠁧󠁢󠁥󠁮󠁧󠁿🤔🙏😀👍🇮🇱

[@gsr4535]

Is the Bible basically ancient Jewish tribal folk tales?

[@smabe7]

You could argue that would have been some of Moses’ sources for the Torah. The Torah being a sort of foundation for the rest of the bible. So if you want to reduce it, you could say: the Torah is based on Israel passed down knowledge, the rest of the Old Testament is based on the Torah, and the New Testament is founded on the old.

[@shirleygraham6229]

Luke 2:49 seems to be proof of a very well developed mental/spiritual standard boy for his age. Just typing this as you were saying it, but hey ho.

[@simonline1194]

The Messiah is the authentic Divine Creator, YHWH (Jn.1:1) and an authentic human creature, Jesus of Nazareth (Jn.1:14; Heb.2:17). The TWO NATURES of the Messiah are united in the ONE PERSON [the Son] Who is the Messiah therefore, the NATURES are distinct but they are NOT separate (otherwise the Messiah is schizophrenic - a Divine Person and a human Person - which is what Nestorius taught and he was denounced as a heretic)?! Separate the Natures and you tear the Person in two. With the sole exception of sin, everything that is true of us as regular human creatures is also true of the Messiah as the irregular human creature (Heb.2:17), irregular because, unlike the rest of us, the Messiah also exists as the Divine Creator, YHWH. Simonline 🏴󠁧󠁢󠁥󠁮󠁧󠁿🤔🙏😀👍🇮🇱

[@simonskinner1450]

Jesus was the Godhead bodily, which is explained in the gospel of John, where we find Jesus was a man impersonating his Father and imbued with the Spirit.

[@simonline1194]

No. The Messiah was/is not ‘the Godhead bodily’ and neither was He ‘impersonating’ anyone. The Messiah is the human incarnation of YHWH (specifically, the Son). Somehow, all the fullness of the Godhead dwelt bodily in the Messiah but that does NOT mean that the Messiah was schizophrenic (physically inhabited by three different Persons (Father, Son and Holy Spirit))?! 🤦‍♂️ The doctrine of Perichoresis relates to Divinity but not to the Incarnation. I do not believe that the One, Infinite, Tri-Personal God was ‘poured’ into the Messiah like liquid being poured into a jug. Instead, I believe this is a reference to the Messiah being able to continue to exist as Immutable/Infinite Divine Creator whilst also coming into existence as a finite human creature (a way in which the Son did NOT exist BEFORE the Incarnation (Heb.2:17)). Simonline 🏴󠁧󠁢󠁥󠁮󠁧󠁿🤔🙏😀👍🇮🇱

[@simonskinner1450]

@simonline1194 Jesus was the revealed image of his Father according to Hebrews, that fits exactly with John's gospel, when you saw Jesus you were imagine the Father. I can't think of a better word than impersonate, but yeah is ehat Jesus was implying. He received God's Spirit in baptism to suit John 3:5 and then John 3:13. He a man was then the Godhead of reflecting his Father, and performing miracles by the power of the Spirit. My explanation requires nothing more than common sense.