Isn't the equation for polar moment of inertia for this problem should be J = pi/4 * (Ro^4-Ri^4) ?

Best explanation yet. I've watch many videos explaining the CP, and I'm so glad I fell upon this one. Kudos to you teacher!

I love the pace your explaining with😊...i don't like slow speakers😭

I guess we can say usung kirchhoff's rule , that the current that are leaving the junction are equal to the current entering at and since i1 and i2 and i3 are equal to Posutive 9.75 and i total is also positive 9.75 but it has to equal zero I total = i1+i2+i3 9.75 = +9.75 9.75 - 9.75 = 0 So its correct 🎉🎉✅✅

Helpful video man thanks , this topic will be on my exams i hope i get good grade

I didn't get how the value of Ra and Rb came out to be that can you explain please . Am grateful to your videos and you too

Why two collinear members will have zero force to be in equilibrium. They will have equal and opposite force to stay in equilibrium

Why doesnt it end up with zero shear force and bending moment

your method is great. keep going.

I'm a bit confused. I'm studying through PMTraining. They and other resources have said that ES = prev EF +1 and LF = successor's LS -1. Not saying this vid is incorrect but I wonder about the discrepancy.

Dear Sir! work on SolidWorks, ANSYS and NX software's. thanks

Thank you so much! youre knowlege and video helped me alot to prepare for my upcoming exams. May God Bless you Sir. ❤

What a legend

Thankyou for this, you made it so easy to understand.

In problem (b) at the last the inclined member should also be zero, cause there is a horizontal reaction on the hinge making the inclined member zero with the two colinera members?

Very helpful , thank you so much 🙏🏽

I am so thankfull!!!!!!!!!

Because of you I got full score on my physics retake 🙌🙌

What if you integrated all the way across the beam once for integral from 0 to L. Would that work?

Why wouldn't the second intergral for section 2 be from L/2 to L, instead of from 0 to L/2. That maybe a shortcut what you did but I think you would do better to first show M1=Fx/2 for 0<x<L/2 and M2=(F/2)[L-x] for L/2<x<L. Then do the two intregrations and add. I checked it and you get the same result but the shortcut should be shown after the more instructive way. IMHO.

at 5:29 the second term integral magically losses the 2 in the denomenator. That it is M2/2EI becomes M2/EI. The 2 just got earased but It threw me off for a bit. Just mentioning that so it doesn't confuse anyone else.

Amazing explanation Better than my lecture

Nice video

"one single node" - nice tautology

Nice things, tnx. 🤝😊

7:37 I don't understand the last activity H the relation is SF we should tack the ES of activity F its 3 +2 lag its 5 and for activity G we should tack the ES its 7 +2 lag its 9 so we tack 9 in Forword not 11 and the CPM will become ABDGH

In class we usually add the durations of each activity for each path to find the Critical Path (the longest one), and you are now telling me I just had to look for the ones with the same numbers 😭 U just earned a subscriber for life

Life made simple thank you very much.. very simplified

wow best explanation ever

This was so helpful and easy to understand 🙌🏾

Thank you very helpful I didn't understand the cutting part but seeing the cut members turn into forces was a lightbulb moment

thank you, very clear explanation

Thank you 😊

Great explanation! Thanks!

Very comprehensive

❤❤❤gangster

why did u plus the Va at 6:02

56/56 lessons completed. 32pages of notes taken. Thank you so much sir!

Why did Sir use sin at point B for the y axis? Isn't it supposed to be cos?

I didn't understood the last part where you find the stress of transformed unit. Haven't we transformed the steel into brass when we increased its crossection by 2 times .

Hi I just wanted to ask if activity C was 80% done, would it’s BCWP be the same as the BCWS because by the time the report date has been reached the same amount of work has been done as the BCWS?

Hi I wanted to ask, if activity C was 80% completed, would it’s BCWP be 800 because but the time it reaches the report date more than 2/3 of the work has been done ?

Ayein😪🫣

Uou are awesome ..5 min better than my teacher 5 hours At school

Ans is 0.33433 ohm

subscribed. your videos helped me a lot

Thank you so much ❤

Thanksss

Wait... i don't really get it. I have a question, so the average shear for two forces acting on the same rod would be 20/A. And in this video, to calculate average shear stress for 3 forces acting on the same rod, we can pick a particular side of the rod and the shear stress then would be P/2A, right? Wouldn't that only make it some-part-of-the-rod average shear stress, and not for the whole rod?