Debunked: 12 People In The Bible Claim Jesus Is God (Part 3)

[@Zederok]

Found this channel and it has answered so many questions I have had for 53 years. I have since my early childhood always wrestled with the thought of the trinity and have always known and felt in my heart of heart that God is supreme and Jesus, while divine is below him although just as important as we need him for salvation but that doesn't mean he is equal to God. Ohh and for the record "Lord" is an Old English (Anglo-Saxon) term (hlāford) deriving from the Loaf Warden meaning the man of the house. Exactly how "Lady" is hlǣfdīge meaning the lady of the house or the bread maker.

[@RodMartinJr]

*_In God, and God in me (Dieu en moi)!_* This is *_not_* identity, but *_harmony._* 😎♥✝🇺🇸💯

[@juniormonteiro6323]

Thank you!

[@RodMartinJr]

*_Part 3?_* It would help if you have a multi-part series, to include a link to the others, or at least a link to the first (with a link, there, to number two, etc). 😎♥✝🇺🇸💯

[@RodMartinJr]

*_Accusations!_* When someone accused Christ of claiming to be God, Jesus frequently said nothing, or sidestepped the claim. His silence was *_not_* necessarily proof of their claims. In fact, Christ needed the priests to misinterpret what he said in order to compel them into putting him to death. 😎♥✝🇺🇸💯

[@davidpatrick1813]

Thank you for clear reasoning.

[@franklicary3407]

I and my Father are one in purpose.

[@Dandymancan]

Except it doesn’t say that

[@xxxViceroyxxx]

@@Dandymancan correct, it says even less than that.

[@KingoftheJuice18]

There's another support for your refutation of Acts 10:34-36. At the end of verse 36, in the NA27 text, there's a comma in the Greek after "Jesus Christ." But even without the comma, it seems quite possible that the "he" in the phrase "he is Lord of all," (οὗτός ἐστιν πάντων κύριος) refers back to God-the very same he as in "he sent to Israel" in the first part of the verse (just like the two "hims" in the previous verse also refer to God).

[@Zuungie]

It should be noted for those who don't know that NA27 is not an original text but rather a critical text based on compilations of manuscripts. When Acts was written, it is a near certainty that it had no punctuation at all.

[@KingoftheJuice18]

@@Zuungie Yes, no original punctuation, which is why I said that the punctuation is not the main point-even though those scholars do believe it best represents the original.

[@biblicaluniteryen]

Your videos are very helpful. Greetings from Turkish Unitarians. God bless you brothers.

[@Zipfreer]

Don’t be hesitant/ashamed to talk about The Father of glory, who is The God of our Lord Jesus, when speaking with others who freely dismiss Him as they try to place Jesus His Christ in the same position that He is in. No. The Father is The Most High, the God of our Lord Jesus.

[@Zuungie]

It's important to note that John 9:9 and Mark 13:6 don't compare to John 8:58 because of the verb tenses and context. We can certainly debate why Jesus intentionally uses the phrase "Before Abraham was, I am," when the proper grammar would be "Before Abraham was, I was" (or better translated into English, "I had been"), but both the beggar's use of "I am" in John 9:9 and Jesus' use of "I am" in Mark 13:6 are simply statements of the phrase "I am" in their proper grammatical context, which is quite different from its out-of-place use in John 8:58.

[@ken440]

​@@jesusisthechristthesonofgodyes it does, "before the river dried up I was there" Before Abraham was, I was. That means existence. Before Abraham was, I am. that means he is actually still back there before Abraham while being present with them there in palestine. A sort of time travel. so the wording doesnt mean existence, it means omnipresence.

[@Zuungie]

@jesusisthechristthesonofgod Hi, thanks for your reply. It would make grammatical sense in both English and Greek for Jesus to say this if He were referring to his existing before Abraham. We can claim it wouldn't make logical sense, if you hold the belief that Jesus was just a created human and didn't pre-exist. But, there's nothing wrong with this phrasing from a grammar perspective in either language. If you prefer the present perfect tense in English, Jesus also could have said "Since before Abraham was, I have been." If you'd like examples of how the Greek tenses are translated into the English present perfect, you can check out John 1:3b.

[@Zuungie]

@@jesusisthechristthesonofgod Hi, thanks for your reply. Per English grammar rules (which are only important here for properly understanding the original Greek grammar), if Jesus was the descendant of Abraham and wanted to express that He descended from Abraham and thus did not exist before Abraham, the text would read something like, "Before I was, Abraham was." It should also be noted that Jesus is indeed the descendant of Abraham, though potentially only by adoption (as we do not have a record of his earthly mother's genealogy.) Both the gospels of Matthew & Luke note that Jesus' familial connection to Abraham was through His adoptive father Joseph, who was a blood descendant of Abraham. But Jesus was not a blood descendant of Joseph, as both of these Gospels note that Jesus came to earth via the seed of the Holy Spirit, not of Joseph. This is why Luke 3:23 says that Jesus was only "supposed" (thought of) to come from Joseph, but He did not come that way in actuality. This is also consistent with Mark 12:37 and Matthew 21:45, when Jesus notes that the messiah does not literally come from David's bloodline (and David was a blood descendant of Abraham). Finally, if you're still curious about Abraham's connection to Jesus, go back to John 8. Jesus draws a distinction between himself and the Jews He is speaking with when He says that they (the Jews) were Abraham descendants (John 8:37) and that Abraham was their father (John 8:56), but Jesus says His Father is God (John 8:54).

[@Christislord421]

​​@@ken440 Before Abraham was I am And before Abraham was I was there are grammatical different You correctly pointed that all these statements of the blind are taken in context But somehow Jesus comment is out of place Not so The term I AM is a self identifying statement in the Bible It means to be something or someone in context of what's being talked of So when Jesus says before Abraham was I AM he's claiming to have been something or someone before Abraham existed he was something whatever is spoken of in context Now when go to the context John 8 .12 Jesus tells Pharisees and Jews he's the light of the world They go back and forth on where's the witness of his statement This results in John 8.25 results in Pharisees asking who does Jesus claim to be of which Jesus responds he is that which he has told them from the beginning Verses 28 Jesus continues to say when they crucify him they shall realise and I I quote "I am he " In context again he is what he's been claiming to be namely the light of the world They then go on to argue against Jesus statement that they should believe in him And in verses 53 they get angry because what Jesus had said something that made him seem superior to Abraham and prophets and they again ask him whom makest thou thyself? Notice again the question they're asking of his identity which he has already told them However in his answer he actually corrects them if you read it carefully Jesus responds by stating that he's not Honouring himself but it's the father who does so In short he's not making himself out to be anything it's the father doing that And he finishes by saying that Abraham saw his day Not that he himself saw Abraham or that Abraham physically saw him Rather Abraham saw Jesus day The Jews MISINTERPRETED him to mean he saw Abraham however Jesus corrects them with his statement before Abraham was I AM In context I am being a self identifying statement is whatever the person in question claims to be and in context is the light of day Therefore Jesus is claiming to have been the light of the world even before Abraham existed and that's how Abraham saw his day and not that Jesus saw Abraham in a pre existent state as the Jews interpreted his statement as he didn't pre exist

[@Christislord421]

Before Abraham was I am And before Abraham was I was there are grammatical different You correctly pointed that all these statements of the blind are taken in context But somehow Jesus comment is out of place Not so The term I AM is a self identifying statement in the Bible It means to be something or someone in context of what's being talked of So when Jesus says before Abraham was I AM he's claiming to have been something or someone before Abraham existed he was something whatever is spoken of in context Now when go to the context John 8 .12 Jesus tells Pharisees and Jews he's the light of the world They go back and forth on where's the witness of his statement This results in John 8.25 results in Pharisees asking who does Jesus claim to be of which Jesus responds he is that which he has told them from the beginning Verses 28 Jesus continues to say when they crucify him they shall realise and I I quote "I am he " In context again he is what he's been claiming to be namely the light of the world They then go on to argue against Jesus statement that they should believe in him And in verses 53 they get angry because what Jesus had said something that made him seem superior to Abraham and prophets and they again ask him whom makest thou thyself? Notice again the question they're asking of his identity which he has already told them However in his answer he actually corrects them if you read it carefully Jesus responds by stating that he's not Honouring himself but it's the father who does so In short he's not making himself out to be anything it's the father doing that And he finishes by saying that Abraham saw his day Not that he himself saw Abraham or that Abraham physically saw him Rather Abraham saw Jesus day The Jews MISINTERPRETED him to mean he saw Abraham however Jesus corrects them with his statement before Abraham was I AM In context I am being a self identifying statement is whatever the person in question claims to be and in context is the light of day Therefore Jesus is claiming to have been the light of the world even before Abraham existed and that's how Abraham saw his day and not that Jesus saw Abraham in a pre existent state as the Jews interpreted his statement as he didn't pre exist

[@co7nt7yt7ug]

So the veil you desire to be uncovered can only be done once you put your faith in Christ. Father I pray in your name Jesus Christ that you reveal yourself to this man and give him the answer he desires to know that you are God and the only one true God the creator of the Universe. In your beautiful living name Jesus Christ, Amen. Shalom Shalom bro.

[@_stxry8705]

The verse says we wait for the appearance of the GLORY of our Great God and Saviour. Thats how I read it at least, with the emphasis being placed on the fact that he is the Glory of God, not our Great God Himself.

[@biblicalunitarian]

Yep exactly, that is how it is translated in the REV - www.revisedenglishversion.com/tit/2/13

[@RodMartinJr]

*_Granville Sharpe!_* There were many rules proposed by Sharpe. ALL but one were rejected by scholars. Oops! And the one remaining is on shaky ground, logically. 😎♥✝🇺🇸💯

[@MrZeuqsav]

Jesus early critics accused him of saying he is God, he defended himself by explaining using the unbreakable scriptures @Psalm,82:6-7, God called us Gods, the sons of most High, Jesus as a messenger directly received God's words that is why he claimed he is SON of God, but the trinitarians broke this scriptures and forced him to be the God, @John, 10:34-36, / Psalm,82:6-7,

[@biblicalunitarian]

Yep, please see this video if you haven't already: kzbin.info/www/bejne/r32yhat8eK6Maqs

[@friendfrombackintheday]

Wait until you find out he didn't die...

[@daviddrew3372]

What is important? Do you believe that Jesus is The Son of God ? Accept the value of his ransom sacrifice? Follow and put into practice his teachings and obey him in how and to whom to pray? Obey his command to “Gotherefore and make disciples .” To preach the good news of his kingdom to all nations ? Very probably you are saying yes . Guess what, you have that in common no matter what else you believe about Jesus.

[@servus_jesu_christi]

Let God’s curse fall on anyone, including us or even an angel from heaven, who preaches a different kind of Good News than the one we preached to you.” ‭‭Galatians‬ ‭1‬:‭8‬ ‭

[@servus_jesu_christi]

“Dear friends, if we deliberately continue sinning after we have received knowledge of the truth, there is no longer any sacrifice that will cover these sins.” ‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭10‬:‭26‬

[@servus_jesu_christi]

““Not everyone who calls out to me, ‘Lord! Lord!’ will enter the Kingdom of Heaven. Only those who actually do the will of my Father in heaven will enter.” ‭‭Matthew‬ ‭7‬:‭21‬

[@dannydavis2724]

" what is to be of his followers who synagogue on shabbos & congregate the first day of the week to eat the flesh & drink the blood of their GOD. those cannibals" first generation deniers i.e. Seutonius etc. - circa 2000 years ago

[@r1chm]

I prefer my version of Trinitarianism. God said we were created in His image, yet we are nothing like him. We don't act like him, we don't look like him, we do not have his power, we do not have free will (If I do not do what I want to do, but what I don't want to do, I keep doing, it is no I that do it but my sinful nature/flesh), But we are like him in this way. I have flesh (Jesus is the flesh), I have a soul/intellect (God the Father), I have a Spirit (Holy Spirit that goes out from the Father). My flesh says eat the donut, My intellect says no you will get fatter. My Spirit says do not eat at all but fast so you can hear the Spirit of God. Paul says my flesh and spirit are at war with each other they communicate with each other. I have 3 parts that want to act independently. I am a trinity. Yet I am one being. God was like that first. The word (Jesus) became flesh and made his dwelling among us and we have seen his Glory. You will ask, why does Jesus pray to the Father and the Father speak to Jesus if they are in communication with each other. John12:28-30 This voice was for your benefit, not mine.

[@kerryweinholz1731]

Hebrews 1:10 ... read a Hebrew Bible for clarification: ADONAI.

[@larrythrasher9713]

No. Jesus, by saying that God was his father, did make himself equal with God. The Jews got that right, and Jesus did not deny it. But he was not equal in a Trinitarian sense but equal in the sense articulated in the Jewish Law of Agency. Jesus, as God's agent, was "equal" to God in a kind of legal sense. A man's agent is as himself as if you were dealing with the principal himself.

[@Dandymancan]

@@larrythrasher9713 the real question is did the Gospel Writer intended for their readers to understand this “Law of Agency” Unitarians love to read into the text? Could Jesus being the Fathers agent rightfully be called Almighty God then? If Yes then you yourself are trapped, if Jesus can rightfully say he is God Almighty because he is an “Agent” then how can we distinguish between this “agency” and Jesus simply claiming to be God. If No, then Jesus is claiming to be God. ““Behold, I am coming soon, bringing my recompense with me, to repay each one for what he has done. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end.”” ‭‭Revelation‬ ‭22‬:‭12‬-‭13‬ ‭ESV‬‬ “Thus says the Lord, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the Lord of hosts: “I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no god.” ‭‭Isaiah‬ ‭44‬:‭6‬ ‭ESV‬‬ If you say Jesus has a beginning because he is the “First” then you are saying YHWY had a beginning because he is the “First” it’s obvious Jesus is using Titles that belong to God ALONE These are not mere titles in a strict sense such as “king of Kings” rather these are attributes and can only rightfully be attributes of Almighty God. Jesus knew exactly what he was claiming, and it further shows that John in his Gospel is portraying Christ as being Truly God. Sound doctrine has been handed down from the Apostles to each generation in the Church, that’s why Arius was massively and overwhelmingly condemned for his view as Christ being a creature, why? because it did not line up with the Sacred Tradition that the Apostles had handed down to the Bishops, they knew what the Christian Faith WAS even without a Canon of Scripture, your Bible that you use is a product of a Pope, it comes from the Council of Rome in 382, the Council of Nicea happened 60 year prior to the formation of the Canon, if you don’t trust the Church on Christology why would you Trust the Canon that it produced? Especially when you believe 60 years prior Paganism snuck into the same Church that you probably think is the whore of Babylon. The attestation and unanimity of the Bishops of the Church, Christ himself found and Christ himself promised that the gates of hell would not prevail against it, confirmed that Jesus was Truly God and Truly Man, always present with the Father, there was Never a time the Father was without his Son and there was never a time the Spirit was not. The Father Begot the Son before all ages, the Spirit has always proceeded from the Father and the Son. The Mystery of God is his unity with himself, he is perfect unity, all persons bearing witness of each other all equal in deity and majesty, one Glorifying the other for all eternity, if you want to know how God knows himself perfectly it is the revelation of his triune nature, the unity of the Holy Trinity. We cannot know ourselves except our subjective experience, God Knows himself through the unitive relationship each Person has to the other, the Son knows the Mind of the Father and the Father knows the mind of the Son, and they Both know the Mind of the Spirit. Glory to the Father, And to the Son, and to the Holy Spirit, God Forever and ever, Amen.

[@r1chm]

One more thing. In your first video on this subject. You said that Isaiah was talking about a child born during the time of Ahaz. 7:14 was not God, and you are right because this scripture is talking about Jesus according to Matt 1 23. Where did Matt get this information. From Jesus, because Jesus said that when the Holy Spirit (who causes men to speak in tongues and prophesy) would bring back to remembrance all Jesus said. John 14:26 This was a prophesy about Jesus. And yes, he is God The other point you make is that Jesus is God, you bring up every verse in the bible that proves Jesus is God and try to disprove it by twisting the work or saying it means something other than what the bible says. The bible says Jesus is God 21 times, and I have refuted each and every one of them. LOL. That should give a person pause to think about what the bible is saying, and what your are trying to prove to make the bible fit into your false teaching. I am not a teacher, teachers are judged more harshly but I do have the Holy Spirit (I speak in tongues) and the Spirit leads us into all truth. Once you receive the Holy Spirit (speak in tongues/prophesy) you will be lead into all truth and away from churches that spew false teachings. While I do not fully believe in the trinitarian view. It is a reasonable explanation to something we cannot explain fully because we don't know how Jesus can be God because God is one, yet all three act independently of each other.

[@McFly8245]

Jesus is Lord do not follow ANYONE who says otherwise

[@biblicalunitarian]

We absolutely believe Jesus is Lord (Rom. 10:9).

[@Dandymancan]

@@biblicalunitarianJesus is God Almighty and follow no one who says otherwise.

[@emmanuelyahaya-nh9fq]

@@DandymancanThat is not in the Bible 😂

[@Dandymancan]

@@emmanuelyahaya-nh9fq Sola Scriptura is not a legitimate doctrine the Early Church held to. We see in the writings of St Irenaeus that there is a Sacred Tradition passed to the Bishops of the Church from the Apostles. Guess what the Canon of Scripture falls under this category. The Canon of Scripture you have is a product of a Catholic Council.

[@r1chm]

Jesus is the Father, Father God. In John20:28 The interlinear version of the bible Thomas says. The lord of me and the God of me. Hard to try and twist that to make it fit false teaching, Jesus did not try to correct him in the next verse but said, you believe because you have seen... But lets see how Jesus is the father. John14:7If you knew me, you would know my Father. From now on (from now on in Jesus ministry he reveals this) you do know him and have seen him. (But Philip did not understand what he was saying so) Philip said, Show us the Father and that will be enough. Philip after me being with you so long do you not know me? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. Anyone reading the interlinear version of the bible can figure this out. I am not going to say it is impossible for you to twist this into your religions false teaching (satan is pretty smart) but I think the average Christian even without the Holy Spirit (speaking in tongues and prophesying) can even figure this one out.

[@marktravis5162]

Jesus declared himself as God when he called himself the alpha and omega and the first and the last

[@michaelhaigh9182]

That true sir he is the son of God. It’s to hard for them to understand ?

[@samuelcallai4209]

that's a good example of reading things into the text.

[@marktravis5162]

@@samuelcallai4209 Lol it’s literally titles of God, just as the term I am, would it make sense to refer to yourself in a title that’s not yours? Obviously not and the gospels reveal that Jesus wasn’t making himself known plainly, he couldn’t. That’s why Paul says if they would have known they would not have crucified him

[@droptozro]

That's called eisegesis. Plenty of better understandings about Jesus being the first/last of the New Covenant since that's what's about to happen described in the Revelation. And Jesus says he has a God in Revelation also, so God has a God? You got 2 Gods or you're going to come back and equivocate? And "I am" is not a title. It's a self-identifying phrase, that's all. I'm sorry your English translations have fooled you. B.U. people believe Jesus is the son of God, his official title as said many times. The son of God, is not that God, nor a second God.

[@marktravis5162]

@@droptozro The son of God is still God that’s the point of Jesus saying you see me you see the Father, there not two separate persons, which is what the apostles first thought that’s why Philip asked him to show them the Father because in his mind the Father was another person apart from Jesus but Jesus then answers him as the Father saying have I been with you all this time and have you not known me Philip? And like when the Jews ask Jesus where his Father was, he said you neither know me nor my Father, if you did know me you should have known my Father also. Why? Because him and the Father are one in the same. That’s why Paul says that God was in Christ reconciling the world unto himself, but we know from the gospels from what’s written that they didn’t actually know that because a lot of things was hid from them. But Jesus told them the time was going to come when he wasn’t going to speak to them in proverbs anymore but show them plainly of the Father

[@jesusisthechristthesonofgod]

God is not Jesus

[@ken440]

and Jesus is not God.

[@ken440]

and Jesus is not God.

[@shanebell2514]

Who is God according to Hebrews 1:8?

[@jesusisthechristthesonofgod]

Who is God according to Hebrews 1:9?

[@shanebell2514]

@@jesusisthechristthesonofgod Don`t answer a question with a question, answer mine.