Circuits I: Example - Frequency Domain Equivalent Circuit

[@therotaryrocket]

Excellent video! Far surpasses anything else I've found on these subjects. Great format, great explanation. Thanks for the help!

[@ThePhDEngineer]

+therotaryrocket Thanks! Glad you found it useful!

[@soup524]

hello i dont know if you are answering questions anymore, but arent you supposed to divide the amplitude of the source by square root of 2 to convert it?

[@harithalau1970]

hi doc, correct me if im wrong but isn't the Is should be equivalent to 250/surd2 when converted into phasor domain?

[@smithsip1]

How do you write backwards?

[@hurrdurr25]

+smithsip1 maybe it's a smart board type thing

[@ThePhDEngineer]

+smithsip1 Actually not writing backwards...I am writing normal on a piece of glass with the camera on the opposite side. During post-processing I simply flip the image such that it appears I am writing backwards (mirror image)!

[@tobidavid6634]

I need help on my circuit theory calculations

[@martyschwarz9422]

Beware, there is an error near the end of the video. The magnitude of the voltage in the frequency/phasor domain is Vrms, = Vmax / sqrt(2). In the video, the instructor mistakenly copied Vmax = 250 V from the time domain, rather than Vrms = 176.8 V

[@Lexyvil]

For the impedance for L and C, I thought we had to look for their reactance 'X' and then plug into the Impedance formula 'Z'. Now I wonder where the j comes from, if anyone can help with that.

[@georgepaul1613]

Very helpful video, thanks alot.

[@ThePhDEngineer]

You're welcome!

[@Julia-hs9og]

This helped me so much, thank you!

[@ThePhDEngineer]

Glad it helped!

[@kimeiga]

beautiful explanation

[@LaplacianFourier]

I was hoping you'd convert the time-domain to the phasor form but i supposed it wasn't need for this problem.

[@FamousEgyptboy]

Thanks for this great explanation

[@johncgibson4720]

When a video truly educates, it scares away the general public wimps. So, it has only 26k views.

[@ThePhDEngineer]

Damn straight...

[@justinknop3582]

When we convert to the frequency domain, why do we convert to impedance as opposed to reactance or admittance? Can't both of those properties represented in the frequency domain as well?

[@NativeBox]

IDK what those are, maybe youre right. I think that is too advanced for our small sophmore brains lmao

[@sutieng8932]

great thank you Dr. 🙂

[@hamzaabdualqawi3261]

Thaaanks

[@ramman20001]

How does having -j/WC make it equivalent to 1/jWC??

[@ab2e887]

If your question is how is -j = 1/j, then you take 1/j and multiply it by j/j which is the same as multiplying by 1. The product evaluates to j/j^2 and since j=sqrt(-1), j/j^2=j/-1 which is the same thing as -j. I hope that helps.

[@basselatta7024]

Thx man 👍👍👍