introduction to number systems and different bases

Learn about different number systems and numbers with base 2 and base 3. We will also see how to convert a number from base 2 to base 10.
Number in different bases: • Numbers In Different B...
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#maths #numbersystem #tutorial

[@jorcyd]

There are 10 types of people in this world: -Those who understand binary -Those who don't -Those who didn't expected a ternary joke

[@4llonsy]

Expect*

[@hannahkindness]

jorcyd wow

[@birdvatcher7424]

LMAO

[@snejpu2508]

Take base 1 and use 0 everywhere...

[@msolec2000]

Actually, in base 1 you use 1 everywhere. 2 is 11, 3 is 111, and so on. Base 1 is tally marks. :)

[@utkarshjain861]

0000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000

[@Samuel-zs9gw]

​@@msolec2000 what tells you that the exponents are 1 and not 0?😂 Since 1¹=1 but 1⁰=1 also, even 1^(n)=1 therefore any whole number can be expressed as a= 1³+1⁴+1¹+1⁰+...+1⁸ Where the powers are random numbers Just to say that a base 1 is not consistent as any number can be anything

[@msolec2000]

@@Samuel-zs9gw The exponents are the powers, not the big numbers. In any case, since you only have 1 as a base (again, not an exponent), you cannot do the random powers you say, because how do you skip something? You don't have 0 in base 1.

[@Samuel-zs9gw]

@@msolec2000 Oh I see, thank you for the explanation!

[@dakotaroberson9921]

one of my more favourite videos so far! i loved how you made this seem fun, and you seemed more relaxed in the video!

[@wahyuadi35]

Cool video, sir. Looks great with that clothes that you wear. 👍🙂 #YAY

[@blackpenredpen]

Thank you!!!

[@pierreabbat6157]

There are also centered base 3 (I use zug notation:ז=-1, ו=0, ג=1), negative bases, and complex bases (base i-1 works with the digits 0 and 1, but base 1+i does not).

[@manuelepedicillo864]

It will be a really good serie

[@8dolev]

It's always nice to relearn something you already know when the teacher is @blackpenredpen, isn't it?

[@manthansunilhalarnkar]

Yay! Nice video 😘

[@peggyfranzen6159]

I gotta say, you're great.

[@Eternap]

Divide num with base 10 repeatedly by 2 , the remainders obtained taken in reverse order are the base 2 form of the given base 10 num , Similarly we can do same process for converting numbers of different bases into certain base :)

[@robertlozyniak3661]

To convert to base 2, I prefer to just list the powers of 2 (1, 2, 4, 8, 16, etc.), and then choose the powers of 2 that add up to the number I am looking to convert. That way, I don't have to do any division.

[@Eternap]

yea That's good for quick ans.

[@blue_tetris]

5:33 0123456789张三李四

[@blackpenredpen]

YES!! : )

[@blazedinfernape886]

That is 1234 in chinese right?

[@jimallysonnevado3973]

Cubic craze no

[@blazedinfernape886]

+Jim Allyson Nevado ok

[@ssdd9911]

zhang3li4

[@david-yt4oo]

7:42 why do I get the impression that one way you could do that is by using some type of linear combination (given the way you wrote out the three numbers with the digits being "attached" to a coefficient of the "base" they were in)...

[@RohaanSyed]

I’m 11 years old and this has helped me a lot

[@AgentM124]

Base 0 is kinda funky :D

[@husklyman]

The second question we have is how we write a number with non-integer count of digits

[@Apollorion]

You mean irrational numbers?

[@husklyman]

Apollorion I mean also rrational number, the only fact is that they will not be integers

[@Apollorion]

Omer, I believe that rational numbers can always be expressed as an limited number of digits followed by a cycle of digits also consisting of a limited nr of digits, which we can write/indicate by drawing a vertical line through the first and last digit of the cycle. For irrational numbers, the notation with digits will always be an approximation, and the best notation is a small expression describing all of it's qualities. edit: I just checked my believe mentioned above on wikipedia and found there a proof that the possibility of writting with a cycle is correct, yet how to indicate the cycle (which is in english called a repetend) is somehow not common. (The method I described is correct in my country/language but not mentioned in the english version of the wikipedia article.) Check it here, if you wish: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Repeating_decimal

[@Omarakram_btw]

how tf did you got an empty photo

[@ssdd9911]

why is 11 of 1101 wearing nike shoes?

[@souravsaha614]

can you make some videos on Ramanujan inventions???

[@zamolxezamolxe8131]

we can use chinese letter... that killed me, was random 😂🤣😂

[@ibrahimuzun5810]

Greetings from Turkey.

[@blackpenredpen]

Hi from Los Angeles!

[@ibrahimuzun5810]

You're lucky! My dream city :)

[@OtiumAbscondita]

Hello! Thanks for the tshirt it just arrived, but, with it was a tshirt from el salvador which says "my son is super awesome soldier and I am lucky because I am his mamma" and it has pictures of guns all over it... Please explain...

[@blackpenredpen]

Mathedidasko I am shocked to hear that. It must have been teespring messing up the order. Can you send me an email with the picture? And I am sorry that this happened. I will communicate with teespring to see what they will do. Btw, please include the pictures of the shirt and also the packaging. Thanks.

[@peggyfranzen6159]

The new math.Oh no! I saw that in fourth grade.

[@sonofmenoetius]

Um I tried this but it isn't interconvertible? Like say I want to covert 321 in base 10 to base, say, 5. Using this method, I get 2241. But when you try to convert 2241 back to base 10, I get 2241 again?? This works with different bases too, like even converting base 2 to base 3 and back: Say I want to convert 321 in base 10 to base 2, I get 101000001. Now if i convert 101000001 to base 3, I get 102220 Again using this, if i convert 102220 to base 2 I get... 11000111101001100. *WHAT*

[@papsanlysenko5232]

What about base π

[@moskthinks9801]

Two nike shoes, base two

[@marcelweber7813]

What would be pi in binary?

[@Gold161803]

You can Google it, I'm sure. It will still be infinitely long of course :)

[@NurulIslam-sj5qe]

How he is using 2 pens at the same time

[@stevegu6377]

thats kinda his channel

[@pixel6090]

Excuseme Why you use zero(0) ì dont understand( srry)

[@Fru1tyy]

i!

[@kinshukdua]

Hey, can you solve this integral? integral of x/(sin x + cos x) from 0 to pi/2 I tried putting u = pi/2 - x and finally ended with integral of pi/4/(sin x + cos x ) from 0 to pi/2 how can we solve this?

[@clubstepdj]

kinshuk dua try multiplying the numerator and denominator by (sin x - cos x) first before integrating, probably it will work Reminder: sin²x + cos²x = 1 and it will remove the denominator for sure Edit: ok i was wrong, multiplying will give you sin²x - cos²x not +, i'm sorry... But from wolfram alpha that integral result is complex, i don't even know how to calculate the "real" result

[@user-vj7uc9tj7c]

Trick: (sin π/4 = cos π/4) *𝓼𝓲𝓷 𝔁 + 𝓬𝓸𝓼 𝔁* = (sin x • sin π/4 + cos x • cos π/4)/cos(π/4) = *sqrt(2)•cos(x - π/4).* You should continue, and use ∫sec x dx = 𝓽𝓷|𝓼𝓮𝓬𝔁+𝓽𝓪𝓷𝔁| + C. (sec x = 1/cos x)

[@user-vj7uc9tj7c]

@@clubstepdj The result is 100% real, and is pi*ln(1+sqrt(2))/sqrt(8). The integral can't be complex, if the function is real at every point between its limits, and the antiderivative is real and not multi-valued. WolframAlpha is right the vast majority of the times, but rarely, is very wrong.

[@infinitiv525]

Any dozenal people here?

[@user-id6xl2pv5p]

hi

[@grim8276]

DUmnezeu