What references ranges does Peter consider too broad on lab tests? (AMA #3)

[@adespade119]

IMHO, when ref ranges are calculated, they're using the normal distribution for the population sampled, I believe this sampled population to be hospital patients. So, when, for example, they produce their ranges for Testosterone, they are including men of all ages, They then produce the normal distribution (for that population). so when you have a young male goes for hormonal tests, they rule, that 300 is in the normal range, what they mean is, it's within the normal distribution for ( hospital) males age between, for example 16 and 90. Within the normal distribution does not mean 'normal' or healthy. It means, normal, for the population we sampled. Doctors must know this. In order to produce this 'normal distribution, they must necessarily include people who fall outside of the current normal distribution, IE outside the upper and lower 2 SD. This means they're trying to base what's 'healthy' using data from patients who are unhealthy. This is also why the ref ranges need updating every few years, they're managing the decline of the population, healthwise, and recalibrating downwards so they can take the next generation down to a new low of health.

[@sabby123456789]

7:16 - When Dr. Attia said 2x what the 1-hour glucose was, did he mean to say 2x what the 1-hour insulin was instead?

[@sabby123456789]

Can omega-6s increase oxidized LDL? I was able to get my oxidized LDL from 76 down to 47 ng/mL by getting rid of saturated fat. I substituted saturated fats with MUFAs and PUFAs from macadamia nuts and walnuts, so I was eating a lot more omega-6s from the walnuts. My oxidized LDL is still above 40 and Peter says it should be under 40. I am a carrier of one copy of the APOE4 allele so I do not know if that plays a role.